Chapter 59 Oregon Laws 1999
Session Law
AN ACT
SB 564
Relating to correction of
erroneous material in Oregon law; creating new provisions; amending ORS 2.570,
3.425, 18.325, 19.005, 19.315, 21.112, 40.460, 59.185, 65.951, 79.1050,
100.450, 107.097, 107.437, 107.510, 107.520, 107.610, 107.765, 109.175,
116.113, 135.905, 144.101, 153.130, 153.800, 163.105, 167.162, 167.164,
171.580, 174.535, 179.380, 179.479, 181.536, 181.700, 183.722, 184.345,
192.105, 192.650, 192.690, 192.835, 194.515, 196.645, 196.660, 196.681,
196.795, 196.910, 197.274, 197.298, 205.460, 215.750, 215.806, 243.291,
243.650, 244.050, 247.296, 254.056, 254.085, 260.178, 260.180, 260.182,
260.184, 260.265, 274.825, 279.015, 279.057, 291.445, 293.495, 293.835,
315.259, 319.730, 329.155, 329.237, 329.885, 332.432, 336.631, 339.030,
339.250, 339.505, 341.305, 342.130, 344.520, 344.735, 345.505, 348.594,
348.596, 348.606, 348.625, 348.992, 351.070, 351.110, 366.335, 377.650,
390.139, 390.195, 410.430, 411.040, 414.025, 416.030, 417.210, 417.760,
418.035, 418.070, 418.312, 418.658, 418.784, 419A.004, 419A.052, 419A.255,
419B.365, 419C.250, 426.500, 430.705, 446.260, 448.005, 448.115, 455.190,
455.525, 456.515, 459A.120, 462.020, 465.505, 465.507, 465.523, 468.150,
468.225, 468A.098, 471.253, 472.125, 475A.010, 475A.015, 475A.035, 475A.045,
475A.075, 475A.110, 475A.115, 475A.125, 475A.130, 475A.135, 475A.155, 477.001,
477.281, 477.665, 479.530, 480.315, 497.132, 497.162, 508.285, 520.015,
526.992, 527.620, 530.280, 536.420, 537.346, 537.575, 541.370, 541.392,
561.150, 564.110, 565.210, 568.930, 571.530, 610.030, 618.071, 624.080,
634.212, 634.905, 635.055, 646.551, 646.605, 652.020, 652.110, 652.140,
652.320, 653.310, 657.044, 657.072, 657.507, 659.322, 670.306, 672.160,
675.063, 679.165, 688.220, 688.645, 689.255, 692.180, 701.150, 701.410,
703.070, 703.420, 703.425, 705.010, 706.520, 708A.115, 708A.155, 708A.565,
708A.650, 709.130, 711.215, 713.090, 716.520, 716.588, 723.188, 744.057,
744.609, 746.015, 746.150, 746.265, 758.400, 801.258, 802.170, 802.600,
805.390, 806.090, 806.270, 810.180, 810.365, 815.107, 818.210, 821.220,
824.102, 824.106, 824.110, 825.137, 830.005 and 830.700 and section 16, chapter
8, Oregon Laws 1997, section 1, chapter 374, Oregon Laws 1997, section 3,
chapter 643, Oregon Laws 1997, and section 40, chapter 746, Oregon Laws 1997,
and ORCP 46B and 55C; and repealing ORS 21.385, 431.275, 431.280 and 599.411.
Be It Enacted by the People of the State of Oregon:
SECTION 1.
ORS 174.535 is amended to read:
174.535. It is the policy of the Legislative Assembly to revise
sections from Oregon Revised Statutes and Oregon law periodically in order to
maintain accuracy. However, nothing in chapter 740, Oregon Laws 1983, chapter
565, Oregon Laws 1985, chapter 158, Oregon Laws 1987, chapter 171, Oregon Laws
1989, chapters 67 and 927, Oregon Laws 1991, chapters 18 and 469, Oregon Laws
1993, chapter 79, Oregon Laws 1995, [and]
chapter 249, Oregon Laws 1997, or this
1999 Act is intended to alter the legislative intent or purpose of
statutory sections affected by chapter 740, Oregon Laws 1983, chapter 565,
Oregon Laws 1985, chapter 158, Oregon Laws 1987, chapter 171, Oregon Laws 1989,
chapters 67 and 927, Oregon Laws 1991, chapters 18 and 469, Oregon Laws 1993,
chapter 79, Oregon Laws 1995, [and]
chapter 249, Oregon Laws 1997, and this
1999 Act except insofar as the amendments thereto, or repeals thereof,
specifically require.
NOTE: Sets forth
Reviser's Bill policy statement.
SECTION 2.
ORS 2.570 is amended to read:
2.570. (1) In hearing and determining causes, the judges of the
Court of Appeals may sit together or in departments.
(2) A department shall consist of three judges. For convenience
of administration, each department may be numbered. The Chief Judge shall from
time to time designate the number of departments and make assignments of the
judges among the departments. The Chief Judge may sit in one or more
departments and when so sitting may preside. The Chief Judge shall designate a
judge to preside in each department.
(3) The majority of any department shall consist of regularly
elected and qualified judges of the Court of Appeals; provided that, if
disqualifications, recusals or other events reduce the number of available
judges to fewer than three, the Supreme Court may appoint such number of
qualified persons as may be necessary as pro tempore members of the Court of Appeals.
(4) The Chief Judge shall apportion the business of the court
between the departments. Each department shall have power to hear and determine
causes, and all questions [which] that may arise therein, subject to
subsection (6) of this section. The presence of three judges is necessary to
transact business in any department, except such business as may be transacted
in chambers by any judge. The concurrence of two judges is necessary to
pronounce judgment.
(5) In the event a judge of a department of three judges dies
or becomes disabled or disqualified and is therefore unable to participate in
the decision of a case submitted to that department, another judge may be
assigned to the department and may participate in the decision with the other
two judges of the department without resubmission of the case.
(6) The Chief Judge or a majority of the regularly elected and
qualified judges of the Court of Appeals may at any time order a cause to be
heard in banc. When sitting in banc, the court may include not more than two
judges pro tempore of the Court of Appeals. When the court sits in banc, the
concurrence of a majority of the judges participating is necessary to pronounce
judgment, but if the judges participating are equally divided in their view as
to the judgment to be given, the judgment appealed from shall be affirmed.
NOTE: Clarifies
reference to Court of Appeals in (3); corrects grammar in (4).
SECTION 3. ORS
3.425 is amended to read:
3.425. (1) The family court department or, if there is no
family court department, the presiding judge or designee of each circuit court
may establish an education program designed to inform parents about the impact
of family restructuring on children when the parent is a named party in any of
the following proceedings:
(a) An annulment or dissolution of marriage action.
(b) A legal separation action.
(c) A petition to establish custody or parenting time.
(d) Post-decree litigation involving custody or parenting time.
(2) An education program established under subsection (1) of
this section must include, but need not be limited to, information about:
(a) The emotional impact of a dissolution of marriage or a
separation on children at different developmental stages.
(b) Parenting during and after a dissolution of marriage or a
separation.
(c) Custody, parenting time and shared parenting plans.
(d) The effect on children of parental conduct including, but
not limited to, long distance
parenting.
(e) Mediation and conflict resolution.
(3) The family court department or, if there is no family court
department, the presiding judge or designee of each circuit court may establish
an education program designed to provide information about dissolution law and
legal procedures, mediation and other dispute resolution alternatives to
persons seeking to annul or dissolve a marriage or to separate from each other.
The program must include, but need not be limited to, information about:
(a) Shared parenting plans.
(b) Division of marital property.
(c) Spousal and child support.
(d) Court procedures and time requirements.
(e) Litigation, mediation and conflict resolution.
(f) The role of attorneys in mediation.
(4) The court may order the parties in any action listed in
subsection (1) of this section to participate in education programs described
in this section unless:
(a) Subject to the approval of the court, the parties agree not
to participate;
(b) On motion of either party or on its own motion, the court
determines that participation is unnecessary; or
(c) With prior approval of the court, the parties select and
participate in comparable education programs.
(5) The court may not require both parties to attend an
education program established under this section at the same time.
(6)(a) The family court department or, if there is no family
court department, the presiding judge or designee of each circuit court shall
designate the program providers for the education programs.
(b) A program provider may charge a person a reasonable fee to
attend education programs. A program provider may not exclude a person from
attending education programs due to an inability to pay the fee if the court
has indicated that the person is indigent or otherwise unable to pay the fee.
(c) A program provider shall issue a certificate of completion
to a participant when the participant has satisfactorily completed the
education programs. A certificate of completion must be filed with the court
prior to the entry of the final judgment in the action.
NOTE: Corrects
punctuation in (2), (2)(d) and (3).
SECTION 4.
ORCP 46 B is amended to read:
B Failure to comply with order.
B(1) Sanctions by court in the county where the deponent is
located. If a deponent fails to be sworn or to answer a question after
being directed to do so by a circuit [or
district] court judge in the county in which the deponent is located, the
failure may be considered a contempt of court.
B(2) Sanctions by court in which action is pending. If a
party or an officer, director, or managing agent or a person designated under
Rule 39 C(6) or 40 A to testify on behalf of a party fails to obey an order to
provide or permit discovery, including an order made under section A of this
rule or Rule 44, the court in which the action is pending may make such orders
in regard to the failure as are just, including among others, the following:
B(2)(a) An order that the matters regarding which the order was
made or any other designated facts shall be taken to be established for the
purposes of the action in accordance with the claim of the party obtaining the
order;
B(2)(b) An order refusing to allow the disobedient party to
support or oppose designated claims or defenses, or prohibiting the disobedient
party from introducing designated matters in evidence;
B(2)(c) An order striking out pleadings or parts thereof, or
staying further proceedings until the order is obeyed, or dismissing the action
or any part thereof, or rendering a judgment by default against the disobedient
party;
B(2)(d) In lieu of any of the foregoing orders or in addition
thereto, an order treating as a contempt of court the failure to obey any order
except an order to submit to a physical or mental examination.
B(2)(e) Such orders as are listed in paragraphs (a), (b), and
(c) of this subsection, where a party has failed to comply with an order under
Rule 44 A requiring the party to produce another for examination, unless the
party failing to comply shows inability to produce such person for examination.
B(3) Payment of expenses. In lieu of any order listed in
subsection (2) of this section or in addition thereto, the court shall require
the party failing to obey the order or the attorney advising such party or both
to pay the reasonable expenses, including attorney's fees, caused by the
failure, unless the court finds that the failure was substantially justified or
that other circumstances make an award of expenses unjust.
NOTE: Deletes
obsolete reference to district court in B(1).
SECTION 5.
ORCP 55 C is amended to read:
C Issuance.
C(1) By whom issued. A subpoena is issued as follows:
(a) to require attendance before a court, or at the trial of an issue therein,
or upon the taking of a deposition in an action pending therein or, if separate
from a subpoena commanding the attendance of a person, to produce books,
papers, documents or tangible things and to permit inspection thereof: (i) it
may be issued in blank by the clerk of the court in which the action is
pending, or if there is no clerk, then by a judge or justice of such court; or
(ii) it may be issued by an attorney of record of the party to the action in
whose behalf the witness is required to appear, subscribed by the signature of
such attorney; (b) to require attendance before any person authorized to take
the testimony of a witness in this state under Rule 38 C, or before any officer
empowered by the laws of the United States to take testimony, it may be issued
by the clerk of a circuit [or district]
court in the county in which the witness is to be examined; (c) to require
attendance out of court in cases not provided for in paragraph (a) of this
subsection, before a judge, justice, or other officer authorized to administer
oaths or take testimony in any matter under the laws of this state, it may be
issued by the judge, justice, or other officer before whom the attendance is
required.
C(2) By clerk in blank. Upon request of a party or
attorney, any subpoena issued by a clerk of court shall be issued in blank and delivered
to the party or attorney requesting it, who shall fill it in before service.
NOTE: Deletes
obsolete reference to district court in C(1).
SECTION 6.
ORS 18.325 is amended to read:
18.325. Unless otherwise prescribed by law, a person recording
a lien record abstract shall use substantially the following form:
___________________________________________________________________
LIEN RECORD ABSTRACT
The undersigned states:
A. Creditor/Prevailing Party Information:
__ 1. The creditor/prevailing
party is:
___________________________________
and the address of the creditor is:
___________________________________
___________________________________
under judgment, decree, order or
petition entered on _____ (date)
in
the [District/Circuit Court/____]
_______ Court for
_______ (County) of
_______ (State) under Case No.
______________.
__ 2. The Creditor's
attorney's name is
___________________________________
Attorney's Address is:
___________________________________
Attorney's Phone No. is: _______________
B. Debtor/Losing Party Information:
__ 1. The Debtor/losing party
is:
___________________________________
__ 2. Whose Address is (if
known):
___________________________________
___________________________________
__ 3. Social Security No. (if
known):
___________________________________
C. Judgment Information:
__ 1. The amount of the
judgment is:
___________________________________
__ 2. The amount of the costs
is:
___________________________________
__ 3. The amount of attorney
fees, if any
is: _________________________________
D. The Real Property to be Affected
(Check appropriate box):
__ All real property of the debtor/losing
party, now or hereafter acquired, in
________ County as provided
under ORS 18.320 and 18.350.
__ The following described real property
of debtor (legal description as set forth
or on attached Exhibit):
___________________________________
___________________________________
___________________________________
___________________________________
IN WITNESS WHEREOF, the
undersigned person or persons have
executed this abstract this ___ day
of _____, 19__.
________________ ________________
________________ ________________
State of Oregon )
) ss.
County of ______ )
The foregoing instrument was acknowledged before me this ____ day of _____, 19___ by _______.
_____________________
Notary Public for Oregon
My commission expires:
_______
State of Oregon )
) ss.
County of ______ )
The foregoing instrument was acknowledged before me this ___ day of ___, 19___ by _____________ and by _______________ of __________, a corporation on behalf of the corporation.
_____________________
Notary Public for Oregon
My commission expires:
_______
___________________________________________________________________
NOTE: Corrects
reference to court in section A of form.
SECTION 7.
Section 40, chapter 746, Oregon Laws 1997, is amended to read:
Sec. 40. (1) Unless
otherwise prescribed by law, a person recording a lien record abstract shall
use substantially the following form:
___________________________________________________________________
LIEN RECORD ABSTRACT
The undersigned states:
A. Creditor/Prevailing Party Information:
__ 1. The creditor/prevailing
party is:
___________________________________
and the address of the creditor is:
___________________________________
___________________________________
under judgment, decree, order or
petition entered on _____ (date)
in the [District/Circuit Court/____]
_____ Court for _____ (County) of
_____ (State) under Case No.
____________.
__ 2. The Creditor's
attorney's name is
___________________________________
Attorney's Address is:
___________________________________
Attorney's Phone No. is: _______________
B. Debtor/Losing Party Information:
__ 1. The Debtor/losing party is:
___________________________________
__ 2. Whose Address is (if
known):
___________________________________
___________________________________
__ 3. Social Security No. (if
known):
___________________________________
C. Judgment Information:
__ 1. The amount of the
judgment is:
___________________________________
__ 2. The amount of the costs
is:
___________________________________
__ 3. The amount of attorney
fees, if any
is: _________________________________
D. The Real or Personal Property to be Affected
(Check appropriate box):
__ All real property of the debtor/losing
party, now or hereafter acquired, in
________ County as provided
under ORS 18.350 and section 39,
chapter 746, Oregon Laws
1997
[of this Act].
__ The following described real or personal
property of debtor (legal description as set
forth or on attached Exhibit):
___________________________________
___________________________________
___________________________________
___________________________________
IN WITNESS WHEREOF, the
undersigned person or persons have
executed this abstract this ___ day
of _____, 19__.
________________ ________________
________________ ________________
State of Oregon )
) ss.
County of ______ )
The foregoing instrument was acknowledged before me this ____ day of _____, 19__ by _______.
_____________________
Notary Public for Oregon
My commission expires:
_______
State of Oregon )
) ss.
County of ______ )
The foregoing instrument was acknowledged before me this _____ day of _____, 19__ by ________________ and by ________________ of ____________, a corporation on behalf of the corporation.
_____________________
Notary Public for Oregon
My commission expires:
_______
___________________________________________________________________
(2) A lien record abstract that is the result of a judgment for
unpaid child or spousal support entered in another state shall be on the form
prescribed by rules adopted by the Department of Human Resources in lieu of the
form required by subsection (1) of this section.
NOTE: Corrects
reference to court in section A of form.
SECTION 8. Nothing in the amendments to ORS 18.325 or
section 40, chapter 746, Oregon Laws 1997, by section 6 or 7 of this 1999 Act
affects the operative-in-lieu or repealing provisions of section 1, chapter
746, Oregon Laws 1997.
SECTION 8a. If Senate Bill 29 becomes law, sections 7
(amending section 40, chapter 746, Oregon Laws 1997) and 8 of this 1999 Act are
repealed.
SECTION 9.
ORS 19.005 is amended to read:
19.005. As used in this chapter:
(1) "Clerk" means the trial court administrator under
ORS 8.185 for the county in which the judgment or appealable order is filed and
entered[, or either].
(2) "Exhibits" means exhibits offered and received or
rejected in the trial court.
(3) "Judgment" means judgment, decree or appealable
order, as provided in ORS 19.205.
(4) "Notice of appeal" includes a notice of
cross-appeal.
(5) "Record" or "record of the case" means
the trial court file and any transcript, narrative statement and exhibits.
(6) "Supersedeas undertaking" means an undertaking on
appeal that secures performance of a judgment being appealed and operates to
stay enforcement of the judgment pending appeal.
(7) "Transcript" means the transcript of the court
reporter's report as provided in ORS 8.340, 8.350 and 8.360 and any transcript
of an audio record prepared under ORS 19.370.
(8) "Trial court file" means all the original papers
filed in the trial court whether before or after judgment, including but not
limited to the summons and proof of service thereof, pleadings, motions,
affidavits, depositions, stipulations, orders, jury instructions, the judgment,
the notice of appeal and the undertaking on appeal.
(9) "Undertaking for costs" means an undertaking on
appeal that secures payment of costs and disbursements that may be awarded
against an appellant on appeal, and any amounts that may be awarded to the
respondent under the provisions of ORS 19.445.
(10) "Undertaking on appeal" means a promise secured
by sureties or by money, bond or any other security described in ORS 22.020.
"Undertaking on appeal" includes undertakings for costs and
supersedeas undertakings.
NOTE: Corrects
syntax in (1).
SECTION 10.
ORS 19.315 is amended to read:
19.315. (1) Except as provided in subsection (4) of this
section, an irrevocable letter of credit filed in support of an undertaking on
appeal must contain:
(a) The name and address of the issuing bank, the date of
issuance and the limit of the bank's liability under the letter of credit.
(b) The name of the court that entered the judgment being
appealed and the title and file number of the case for which the judgment was
entered.
(c) The name and address of the party who is filing the
undertaking or, if the party is represented by an attorney, the name and
address of the attorney.
(d) The name and address of the beneficiary or, if the
beneficiary is represented by an attorney, the name and address of the attorney
for the beneficiary.
(e) A statement that the issuing bank will pay to the
beneficiary, up to the limit stated in the letter of credit, the amount of any
drafts submitted to the issuing bank under ORS 19.325.
(2) An irrevocable letter of credit filed in support of an
undertaking on appeal may be issued only by [a commercial bank, as defined in ORS 706.005] an insured institution, as defined in ORS 706.008, that has an
office or other facility in this state or that has a registered agent in this
state.
(3) A letter of credit under this section may contain an
expiration date. Any letter of credit containing an expiration date must comply
with ORS 19.320.
(4) A party filing a letter of credit in support of an
undertaking on appeal and the party for whose benefit an undertaking is filed may
by agreement waive any of the requirements of subsection (1) of this section.
NOTE: Corrects
terminology and ORS reference in (2).
SECTION 11.
ORS 21.112 is amended to read:
21.112. (1) The clerk of the court shall collect at the time a
proceeding described in subsection (2) of this section is filed a fee in an
amount determined by the governing body of the county to be necessary in the
particular type of case, in addition to any other funds used therefor, to pay
the expenses of providing the services required or allowed by ORS 107.434,
107.510 to 107.610 and 107.755 to 107.785 and established by order or rule of
the governing body filed with the clerk of the court. The fees provided for in
this section are in addition to all other fees that are collected by the clerk
at the time the proceeding is filed. Fees collected under this section shall be
paid, in the manner determined by the State Court Administrator, to the
appropriate officer of the county within the first 25 days of the month
following the month in which collected. The fees shall be used by the county to
pay the expenses of providing the services.
(2) The additional fee established by this section shall be
collected by the clerk:
(a) In the following proceedings:
(A) Proceedings for dissolution of marriage, annulment of
marriage or separation.
(B) Filiation proceedings under ORS 109.124 to 109.230.
(C) Proceedings to determine custody or support of a child
under ORS 109.103.
(D) Proceedings for modifications of orders issued under subparagraphs
(A) to (C) of this paragraph.
(E) Proceedings under ORS 107.434.
(b) Notwithstanding ORS [21.110
(2)] 21.111 (3), for responses
in any of the proceedings listed in paragraph (a) of this subsection.
NOTE: Corrects ORS
reference in (2)(b).
SECTION 12. ORS 21.385 is repealed.
NOTE: Repeals
duplicative statute.
SECTION 13.
ORS 40.460 is amended to read:
40.460. The following are not excluded by ORS 40.455, even
though the declarant is available as a witness:
(1) (Reserved.)
(2) A statement relating to a startling event or condition made
while the declarant was under the stress of excitement caused by the event or
condition.
(3) A statement of the declarant's then existing state of mind,
emotion, sensation or physical condition, such as intent, plan, motive, design,
mental feeling, pain or bodily health, but not including a statement of memory
or belief to prove the fact remembered or believed unless it relates to the
execution, revocation, identification, or terms of the declarant's will.
(4) Statements made for purposes of medical diagnosis or
treatment and describing medical history, or past or present symptoms, pain or
sensations, or the inception or general character of the cause of external
source thereof insofar as reasonably pertinent to diagnosis or treatment.
(5) A memorandum or record concerning a matter about which a
witness once had knowledge but now has insufficient recollection to enable the
witness to testify fully and accurately, shown to have been made or adopted by
the witness when the matter was fresh in the memory of the witness and to
reflect that knowledge correctly. If admitted, the memorandum or record may be
read into evidence but may not itself be received as an exhibit unless offered
by an adverse party.
(6) A memorandum, report, record, or data compilation, in any
form, of acts, events, conditions, opinions, or diagnoses, made at or near the
time by, or from information transmitted by, a person with knowledge, if kept
in the course of a regularly conducted business activity, and if it was the
regular practice of that business activity to make the memorandum, report,
record, or data compilation, all as shown by the testimony of the custodian or
other qualified witness, unless the source of information or the method of circumstances
of preparation indicate lack of trustworthiness. The term "business"
as used in this subsection includes business, institution, association,
profession, occupation, and calling of every kind, whether or not conducted for
profit.
(7) Evidence that a matter is not included in the memoranda,
reports, records, or data compilations, and in any form, kept in accordance
with the provisions of subsection (6) of this section, to prove the
nonoccurrence or nonexistence of the matter, if the matter was of a kind of
which a memorandum, report, record, or data compilation was regularly made and
preserved, unless the sources of information or other circumstances indicate
lack of trustworthiness.
(8) Records, reports, statements, or data compilations, in any form,
of public offices or agencies, setting forth:
(a) The activities of the office or agency;
(b) Matters observed pursuant to duty imposed by law as to
which matters there was a duty to report, excluding however, in criminal cases
matters observed by police officers and other law enforcement personnel; or
(c) In civil actions and proceedings and against the government
in criminal cases, factual findings, resulting from an investigation made
pursuant to authority granted by law, unless the sources of information or
other circumstances indicate lack of trustworthiness.
(9) Records or data compilations, in any form, of births, fetal
deaths, deaths or marriages, if the report thereof was made to a public office
pursuant to requirements of law.
(10) To prove the absence of a record, report, statement, or
data compilation, in any form, or the nonoccurrence or nonexistence of a matter
of which a record, report, statement, or data compilation, in any form, was
regularly made and preserved by a public office or agency, evidence in the form
of a certification in accordance with ORS 40.510, or testimony, that diligent
search failed to disclose the record, report, statement, or data compilation,
or entry.
(11) Statements of births, marriages, divorces, deaths,
legitimacy, ancestry, relationship by blood or marriage, or other similar facts
of personal or family history, contained in a regularly kept record of a
religious organization.
(12) A statement of fact contained in a certificate that the
maker performed a marriage or other ceremony or administered a sacrament, made
by a clergyman, public official, or other person authorized by the rules or
practices of a religious organization or by law to perform the act certified,
and purporting to have been issued at the time of the act or within a
reasonable time thereafter.
(13) Statements of facts concerning personal or family history
contained in family bibles, genealogies, charts, engravings on rings,
inscriptions on family portraits, engravings on urns, crypts, or tombstones, or
the like.
(14) The record of a document purporting to establish or affect
an interest in property, as proof of content of the original recorded document
and its execution and delivery by each person by whom it purports to have been
executed, if the record is a record of a public office and an applicable
statute authorizes the recording of documents of that kind in that office.
(15) A statement contained in a document purporting to
establish or affect an interest in property if the matter stated was relevant
to the purpose of the document, unless dealings with the property since the
document was made have been inconsistent with the truth of the statement or the
purport of the document.
(16) Statements in a document in existence 20 years or more the
authenticity of which is established.
(17) Market quotations, tabulations, lists, directories, or
other published compilations, generally used and relied upon by the public or
by persons in particular occupations.
(18) (Reserved.)
(18a)(a) A complaint of sexual misconduct or complaint of abuse
as defined in ORS 419B.005 made by the witness after the commission of the
alleged misconduct or abuse at issue. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of
this subsection, such evidence must be confined to the fact that the complaint
was made.
(b) A statement made by a child victim or person with
developmental disabilities as described in paragraph (d) of this subsection,
which statement concerns an act of abuse, as defined in ORS 419B.005, or sexual
conduct performed with or on the child or person with developmental
disabilities by another, is not excluded by ORS 40.455 if the child or person
with developmental disabilities either testifies at the proceeding and is
subject to cross-examination or is chronologically or mentally under 12 years
of age and is unavailable as a witness. However, when a witness under 12 years
of age or a person with developmental disabilities is unavailable as a witness,
the statement may be admitted in evidence only if the proponent establishes
that the time, content and circumstances of the statement provide indicia of
reliability, and in a criminal trial that there is corroborative evidence of
the act of abuse or sexual conduct and of the alleged perpetrator's opportunity
to participate in the conduct and that the statement possesses indicia of
reliability as is constitutionally required to be admitted. No statement may be
admitted under this paragraph unless the proponent of the statement makes known
to the adverse party the proponent's intention to offer the statement and the
particulars of the statement no later than 15 days before trial, except for
good cause shown. For purposes of this paragraph, in addition to those
situations described in ORS 40.465 (1), the child or person with developmental
disabilities shall be considered "unavailable" if the child or person
with developmental disabilities has a substantial lack of memory of the subject
matter of the statement, is presently incompetent to testify, is unable to communicate
about the abuse or sexual conduct because of fear or other similar reason or is
substantially likely, as established by expert testimony, to suffer lasting
severe emotional trauma from testifying. Unless otherwise agreed by the
parties, the court shall examine the child or person with developmental
disabilities in chambers and on the record or outside the presence of the jury
and on the record. The examination shall be conducted immediately prior to the
commencement of the trial in the presence of the attorney and the legal
guardian or other suitable adult as designated by the court. If the child or
person with developmental disabilities is found to be unavailable, the court
shall then determine the admissibility of the evidence. The determinations
shall be appealable under ORS 138.060 (3). The purpose of the examination shall
be to aid the court in making its findings regarding the availability of the
child or person with developmental disabilities as a witness and the
reliability of the statement of the child or person with developmental
disabilities. In determining whether a statement possesses indicia of
reliability under this paragraph, the court may consider, but is not limited
to, the following factors:
(A) The personal knowledge of the child or person with
developmental disabilities of the event;
(B) The age and maturity of the child or extent of disability
of the person with developmental disabilities;
(C) Certainty that the statement was made, including the
credibility of the person testifying about the statement and any motive the
person may have to falsify or distort the statement;
(D) Any apparent motive the child or person with developmental
disabilities may have to falsify or distort the event, including bias,
corruption or coercion;
(E) The timing of the statement of the child or person with
developmental disabilities;
(F) Whether more than one person heard the statement;
(G) Whether the child or person with developmental disabilities
was suffering pain or distress when making the statement;
(H) Whether the child's young age makes it unlikely that the
child fabricated a statement that represents a graphic, detailed account beyond
the child's knowledge and experience;
(I) Whether the statement has internal consistency or coherence
and uses terminology appropriate to the child's age or to the extent of the
disability of the person with developmental disabilities;
(J) Whether the statement is spontaneous or directly responsive
to questions; and
(K) Whether the statement was elicited by leading questions.
(c) This subsection applies to all civil, criminal and juvenile
proceedings.
(d) For the purposes of this subsection, "developmental
disabilities" means any disability attributable to mental retardation,
autism, cerebral palsy, epilepsy or other disabling neurological condition that
requires training or support similar to that required by persons with mental
retardation, if either of the following apply:
(A) The disability originates before the person attains 22
years of age, or if the disability is attributable to mental retardation the
condition is manifested before the person attains 18 years of age, the
disability can be expected to continue indefinitely, and the disability
constitutes a substantial handicap to the ability of the person to function in
society.
(B) The disability results in a significant subaverage general
intellectual functioning with concurrent deficits in adaptive behavior that are
manifested during the developmental period.
(19) Reputation among members of a person's family by blood,
adoption or marriage, or among a person's associates, or in the community,
concerning a person's birth, adoption, marriage, divorce, death, legitimacy,
relationship by blood or adoption or marriage, ancestry, or other similar fact
of a person's personal or family history.
(20) Reputation in a community, arising before the controversy,
as to boundaries of or customs affecting lands in the community, and reputation
as to events of general history important to the community or state or nation
in which located.
(21) Reputation of a person's character among associates of the
person or in the community.
(22) Evidence of a final judgment, entered after a trial or
upon a plea of guilty, but not upon a plea of no contest, adjudging a person
guilty of a crime other than a traffic offense, to prove any fact essential to
sustain the judgment, but not including, when offered by the government in a
criminal prosecution for purposes other than impeachment, judgments against
persons other than the accused. The pendency of an appeal may be shown but does
not affect admissibility.
(23) Judgments as proof of matters of personal, family or
general history, or boundaries, essential to the judgment, if the same would be
provable by evidence of reputation.
(24) Notwithstanding the limits contained in subsection (18a)
of this section, in any proceeding in which a child under 12 years of age at
the time of trial, or a person with developmental disabilities as described in
subsection [(18)(d)] (18a)(d) of this section, may be called
as a witness to testify concerning an act of abuse, as defined in ORS 419B.005,
or sexual conduct performed with or on the child or person with developmental
disabilities by another, the testimony of the child or person with
developmental disabilities taken by contemporaneous examination and
cross-examination in another place under the supervision of the trial judge and
communicated to the courtroom by closed circuit television or other audiovisual
means. Testimony will be allowed as provided in this subsection only if the
court finds that there is a substantial likelihood, established by expert
testimony, that the child or person with developmental disabilities will suffer
severe emotional or psychological harm if required to testify in open court. If
the court makes such a finding, the court, on motion of a party, the child, the
person with developmental disabilities or the court in a civil proceeding, or
on motion of the district attorney, the child or the person with developmental
disabilities in a criminal or juvenile proceeding, may order that the testimony
of the child or the person with developmental disabilities be taken as
described in this subsection. Only the judge, the attorneys for the parties,
the parties, individuals necessary to operate the equipment and any individual
the court finds would contribute to the welfare and well-being of the child or
person with developmental disabilities may be present during the testimony of
the child or person with developmental disabilities.
(25) Any document containing data prepared or recorded by the
Oregon State Police pursuant to ORS 813.160 (1)(b)(C) or (E), or pursuant to
ORS 475.235 (3), if the document is produced by data retrieval from the Law
Enforcement Data System or other computer system maintained and operated by the
Oregon State Police, and the person retrieving the data attests that the
information was retrieved directly from the system and that the document
accurately reflects the data retrieved.
(26)(a) A statement not specifically covered by any of the
foregoing exceptions but having equivalent circumstantial guarantees of
trustworthiness, if the court determines that:
(A) The statement is relevant;
(B) The statement is more probative on the point for which it
is offered than any other evidence [which]
that the proponent can procure
through reasonable efforts; and
(C) The general purposes of the Oregon Evidence Code and the
interests of justice will best be served by admission of the statement into
evidence.
(b) A statement may not be admitted under this subsection
unless the proponent of it makes known to the adverse party the intention to
offer the statement and the particulars of it, including the name and address
of the declarant, sufficiently in advance of the trial or hearing, or as soon
as practicable after it becomes apparent that such statement is probative of
the issues at hand, to provide the adverse party with a fair opportunity to
prepare to meet it.
NOTE: Corrects
internal reference in (24); corrects grammar in (26)(a)(B).
SECTION 14.
ORS 59.185 is amended to read:
59.185. (1) Every license of a broker-dealer or state investment adviser expires one
year after the date of issuance unless the Director of the Department of
Consumer and Business Services establishes a different expiration date for
purposes of coordination with any national registration or licensing system.
(2) Every license of a mortgage banker's or mortgage broker's
salesperson expires one year after the date of issuance unless the director
establishes a different expiration date for the purposes of coordination with
any national registration or licensing system.
(3)(a) Every license of an issuer's or owner's salesperson
expires when the securities are no longer authorized for sale or one year after
the date of issuance, whichever is sooner.
(b) Unless the director establishes a different expiration date
for the purposes of coordination with any national registration or licensing
system, every license of a salesperson licensed to a broker-dealer and every
license of an investment adviser representative licensed to a state investment
adviser expires on the same date that the license of the broker-dealer or state
investment adviser expires.
(c) Unless the director establishes a different expiration date
for the purposes of coordination with any national registration or licensing
system, every license of an investment adviser representative licensed on
behalf of a federal covered investment adviser expires the earlier of one year
after the date of issuance or the date the notice of the federal covered
investment adviser expires.
(4) The director by rule shall establish procedures for
renewing licenses of broker-dealers, state investment advisers, investment
adviser representatives and salespersons, and for the annual renewal of
licenses or notice filings made on behalf of federal covered investment
advisers.
(5) If there is a change in the partners, directors, officers,
persons occupying similar positions or performing similar functions, or persons
directly or indirectly controlling a broker-dealer or state investment adviser,
written notification of such change shall promptly be filed with the director.
No fee shall be required for such notification. An examination may be required
of any such individual who is newly connected with or interested in the
licensee.
NOTE: Corrects
terminology in (1).
SECTION 15. ORS 65.855 to 65.875 are added to and made
a part of ORS chapter 65.
NOTE: Adds statutes
to appropriate series.
SECTION 16.
ORS 65.951 is amended to read:
65.951. [ORS 65.001 to
65.787 and 65.951 to 65.967] This
chapter shall be known and may be cited as the Oregon Nonprofit Corporation
Act.
NOTE: Corrects
series reference.
SECTION 17.
ORS 79.1050 is amended to read:
79.1050. (1) In ORS 79.1010 to 79.5070 and 79.8010 unless the
context otherwise requires:
(a) "Account debtor" means the person who is
obligated on an account, chattel paper or general intangible.
(b) "Chattel paper" means a writing or writings [which] that evidence both a monetary obligation and a security interest in
or a lease of specific goods. When a transaction is evidenced both by such a
security agreement or a lease and by an instrument or a series of instruments,
the group of writings taken together constitutes chattel paper.
(c) "Collateral" means the property subject to a
security interest, and includes accounts and chattel paper [which] that have been sold.
(d) "Debtor" means the person who owes payment or
other performance of the obligation secured, whether or not the person owns or
has rights in the collateral, and includes the seller of accounts or chattel
paper. Where the debtor and the owner of the collateral are not the same
person, the term "debtor" means the owner of the collateral in any
provision of ORS 79.1010 to 79.5070 and 79.8010 dealing with the collateral,
the obligor in any provision dealing with the obligation, and may include both
where the context so requires.
(e) "Deposit account" means a demand, time, savings,
passbook or like account maintained with a bank, savings and loan association,
credit union or like organization, other than an account evidenced by a
certificate of deposit.
(f) "Document" means document of title as defined in
ORS 71.2010, and a receipt of the kind described in ORS 77.2010 (2).
(g) "Encumbrance" includes real estate mortgages and
other liens on real estate and all other rights in real estate that are not
ownership interests.
(h) "Goods" includes all things [which] that are movable
at the time the security interest attaches or [which] that are
fixtures, but does not include money, documents, instruments, investment
property, commodity contracts, accounts, chattel paper, general intangibles, or
minerals or the like (including oil and gas) before extraction.
"Goods" also includes the unborn young of animals and growing crops;
and standing timber [which] that is to be cut and removed under a
conveyance or contract of sale.
(i) "Instrument" means a negotiable instrument as
defined in ORS 73.0104 or any other writing [which] that evidences a
right to the payment of money and is not itself a security agreement or lease
and is of a type [which] that is in ordinary course of business
transferred by delivery with any necessary indorsement or assignment. The term
does not include investment property.
(j) "Mortgage" means a consensual interest created by
a real estate mortgage, a trust deed on real estate, or the like.
(k) An advance is made "pursuant to commitment" if
the secured party has bound the secured party to make it, whether or not a
subsequent event of default or other event not within the control of the
secured party has relieved or may relieve the secured party from the
obligation.
(L) "Security agreement" means an agreement [which] that creates or provides for a security interest.
(m) "Secured party" means a lender, seller or other
person in whose favor there is a security interest, including a person to whom
accounts or chattel paper have been sold. When the holders of obligations
issued under an indenture of trust, equipment trust agreement or the like are
represented by a trustee or other person, the representative is the secured
party.
(n) "Transmitting utility" means any person primarily
engaged in the railroad, street railway or trolley bus business, the electric
or electronics communications transmission business, the transmission of goods
by pipeline, or the transmission or the production and transmission of
electricity, steam, gas or water, or the provision of sewer service.
(2) Other definitions applying to ORS 79.1010 to 79.5070 and
79.8010 and the sections in which they appear are:
(a) "Account," as defined in ORS 79.1060.
(b) "Attach," as defined in ORS 79.2030.
(c) "Commodity contract," as defined in ORS 79.1150.
(d) "Commodity customer," as defined in ORS 79.1150.
(e) "Commodity intermediary," as defined in ORS
79.1150.
(f) "Construction mortgage," as defined in ORS
79.3130 (1).
(g) "Consumer goods," as defined in ORS 79.1090 (1).
(h) "Control," as defined in ORS 79.1150.
(i) "Equipment," as defined in ORS 79.1090 (2).
(j) "Farm products," as defined in ORS 79.1090 (3).
(k) "Fixture," as defined in ORS 79.3130.
(L) "Fixture filing," as defined in ORS 79.3130.
(m) "General intangibles," as defined in ORS 79.1060.
(n) "Inventory," as defined in ORS 79.1090 (4).
(o) "Investment property," as defined in ORS 79.1150.
(p) "Lien creditor," as defined in ORS 79.3010.
(q) "Proceeds," as defined in ORS 79.3060 (1).
(r) "Purchase money security interest," as defined in
ORS 79.1070.
(s) "United States," as defined in ORS 79.1030
(3)(c).
(3) The following definitions in other chapters apply to ORS
79.1010 to 79.5070 and 79.8010:
(a) "Broker," as defined in ORS 78.1020.
(b) "Certificated security," as defined in ORS
78.1020.
(c) "Check," as defined in ORS 73.0104.
(d) "Clearing corporation," as defined in ORS
78.1020.
(e) "Contract for sale," as defined in ORS 72.1060.
(f) "Control," as defined in ORS 78.1060.
(g) "Delivery," as defined in ORS 78.3010.
(h) "Entitlement holder," as defined in ORS 78.1020.
(i) "Financial asset," as defined in ORS 78.1020.
(j) "Holder in due course," as defined in ORS
73.0302.
(k) "Letter of credit," as defined in ORS 75.1020.
(L) "Note," as defined in ORS 73.0104.
(m) "Proceeds of a letter of credit," as defined in ORS 75.1140.
(n) "Sale," as defined in ORS 72.1060.
(o) "Securities intermediary," as defined in ORS
78.1020.
(p) "Security," as defined in ORS 78.1020.
(q) "Security certificate," as defined in ORS
78.1020.
(r) "Security entitlement," as defined in ORS
78.1020.
(s) "Uncertificated security," as defined in ORS
78.1020.
(4) In addition, ORS chapter 71 contains general definitions
and principles of construction and interpretation applicable throughout ORS
79.1010 to 79.5070 and 79.8010.
NOTE: Corrects
grammar in (1) and syntax in (3)(m).
SECTION 18.
ORS 100.450 is amended to read:
100.450. (1) Whenever an association of unit owners levies any
assessment against a unit, the association of unit owners, upon complying with
subsection (2) of this section, shall have a lien upon the individual unit and
the undivided interest in the common elements appertaining to such unit for any
unpaid assessments and interest as provided in subsection (2)(b) of this
section. The lien shall be prior to a homestead exemption and all other liens
or encumbrances upon the unit except:
(a) Tax and assessment liens; and
(b) A prior mortgage or trust deed of record unless:
(A) The condominium consists of [less] fewer than seven
units, all of which are to be used for nonresidential purposes;
(B) The declaration provides that the lien of any mortgage or
trust deed of record affecting the property shall be subordinate to the lien of
the association provided under subsection (1) of this section; and
(C) The holder of any mortgage or trust deed of record
affecting the property when the declaration is recorded executes a separate
subordination of the holder's interest to the declaration which is attached as
an exhibit and which states that the holder understands that the declaration
subordinates the holder's lien to the assessment lien of the association
provided under subsection (1) of this section.
(2)(a) An association of unit owners claiming the benefits of
subsection (1) of this section shall record in the county in which the unit or
some part thereof is located a claim containing a true statement of the amount
due for the unpaid assessments after deducting all just credits and offsets;
the name of the owner of the unit, or reputed owner, if known; the name of the
condominium and the designation of the unit, sufficient for identification.
(b) Where a claim has been filed and recorded pursuant to this
section and the owner of the unit subject to the claim thereafter fails to pay
any assessment chargeable to such unit, then so long as the original or any
subsequent unpaid assessment remains unpaid such claim shall automatically
accumulate the subsequent unpaid assessments and interest thereon without the
necessity of further filings under this section.
(3) The claim shall be verified by the oath of some person
having knowledge of the facts and shall be filed with and recorded by the
recording officer in the book kept for the purpose of recording liens filed
under ORS 87.035. The record shall be indexed as deeds and other conveyances
are required by law to be indexed.
(4) The proceedings to foreclose liens created by this section
shall conform as nearly as possible to the proceedings to foreclose liens
created by ORS 87.010, except that notwithstanding ORS 87.055, a lien may be continued
in force for a period of time not to exceed six years from the date the claim
is filed under subsection (3) of this section. For the purpose of determining
the date the claim is filed in those cases where subsequent unpaid assessments
have accumulated under the claim as provided in subsection (2)(b) of this
section, the claim regarding each unpaid assessment shall be deemed to have
been filed at the time such unpaid assessment became due. The lien may be
enforced by the board of directors acting on behalf of the association of unit
owners. An action to recover a money judgment for unpaid assessments may be
maintained without foreclosing or waiving the lien securing the claim for
unpaid assessments. No action to foreclose a lien under this section or recover
a money judgment for unpaid assessments may be maintained unless the
Condominium Information Report and the Annual Report described in ORS 100.250
are designated current as provided in ORS 100.255.
(5) Unless the declaration or bylaws provides otherwise, fees,
late charges, fines and interest imposed pursuant to ORS 100.405 (4)(i), (j),
(k) and (L) are enforceable as assessments under this section.
(6) With respect to condominium units also constituting
timeshare property as defined by ORS 94.803, liens created by this section
shall be assessed to the timeshare owners in the timeshare property according
to the method for determining each owner's liability for common expenses under
the timeshare instrument and shall be enforced individually against each
timeshare owner in the condominium unit.
(7) Notwithstanding the priority established for a lien for
unpaid assessments and interest under subsection (1) of this section, the lien
shall also be prior to the lien of any prior mortgage or trust deed of record
for the unit and the undivided interest in the common elements, if:
(a) The association of unit owners for the condominium in which
the unit is located has given the lender under the mortgage or trust deed 90
days prior written notice that the owner of the unit is in default in payment
of an assessment. The notice shall contain:
(A) Name of borrower;
(B) Recording date of trust deed or mortgage;
(C) Recording information;
(D) Name of condominium, unit owner and unit identification;
and
(E) Amount of unpaid assessment.
(b) The notice under paragraph (a) of this subsection shall set
forth the following in 10-point type:
___________________________________________________________________
NOTICE: The lien of the association may become prior to that of
the lender pursuant to ORS 100.450.
___________________________________________________________________
(c) The lender has not initiated judicial action to foreclose
the mortgage or requested issuance of a trustee's notice of sale under the
trust deed or accepted a deed in lieu of foreclosure in the circumstances
described in ORS 100.465 prior to the expiration of 90 days following the
notice by the unit owners' association.
(d) The unit owners' association has provided the lender, upon
request, with copies of any liens filed on the unit, a statement of the
assessments and interest remaining unpaid on the unit and other documents which
the lender may reasonably request.
(e) The borrower is in default under the terms of the mortgage
or trust deed as to principal and interest.
(f) A copy of the notice described in paragraph (a) of this
subsection has been verified, filed and recorded in the manner prescribed in
subsection (3) of this section.
NOTE: Corrects
grammar in (1)(b)(A).
SECTION 19.
ORS 107.097 is amended to read:
107.097. (1) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (3) of
this section, a court may not enter ex parte a temporary order under ORS
107.095, 109.103 or 109.119 providing for the custody of, or parenting time
with, a child.
(2)(a) A party may apply to a court for a temporary protective
order of restraint by filing with the court an affidavit conforming to the
requirements of ORS 109.790.
(b) Upon receipt of an application under this subsection, the
court may issue a temporary protective order of restraint restraining and
enjoining each party from:
(A) Changing the child's usual place of residence;
(B) Interfering with the present placement and daily schedule
of the child;
(C) Hiding or secreting the child from the other party;
(D) Interfering with the other party's usual contact and
parenting time with the child;
(E) Leaving the state with the child without the written
permission of the other party or the permission of the court; or
(F) In any manner disturbing the current schedule and daily
routine of the child until custody or parenting time has been determined.
(c) A copy of the order and the supporting affidavit must be
served on the other party in the manner of service of a summons under ORCP 7.
The order must include the following statement:
___________________________________________________________________
Notice: You may request a hearing on this order as long as it
remains in effect by filing with the court a hearing request in the form
described in ORS 107.097 (5).
___________________________________________________________________
(3)(a) A court may enter ex parte a temporary order providing
for the custody of, or parenting time with, a child if:
(A) The party requesting an order is present in court and
presents an affidavit alleging that the child is in immediate danger; and
(B) The court finds, based on the facts presented in the
party's testimony and affidavit and in the testimony of the other party, if the
other party is present, that the child is in immediate danger.
(b) The party requesting an order under this subsection shall
provide the court with telephone numbers where the party can be reached at any
time during the day and a contact address.
(c) A copy of the order and the supporting affidavit must be
served on the other party in the manner of service of a summons under ORCP 7.
The order must include the following statement:
___________________________________________________________________
Notice: You may request a hearing on this order as long as it
remains in effect by filing with the court a hearing request in the form
described in ORS 107.097 (5).
___________________________________________________________________
(4)(a) A party against whom an order is entered under
subsection (2) or (3) of this section may request a hearing by filing with the
court a hearing request form described in subsection (5) of this section at any
time while the order is in effect.
(b) The court shall make reasonable efforts to hold a hearing
within 14 days and shall hold a hearing no later than 21 days after receipt of
the request for the hearing. The court shall notify each party of the time,
date and place of the hearing.
(c) An order issued under subsection (2) or (3) of this section
remains in effect through the date of the hearing. If the party against whom
the order was entered fails to appear at the hearing without good cause, the
court shall continue the order in effect. If the party who obtained the order
fails to appear at the hearing without good cause, the court shall vacate the
order.
(d) The issue at a hearing to contest:
(A) A temporary protective order of restraint is limited to a
determination of the status quo at the time the order was issued. If the
child's usual place of residence cannot be determined, the court may make any
further order the court finds appropriate in the best interests of the child.
(B) A temporary order for the custody of, or parenting time
with, a child is limited to whether the child was in immediate danger at the
time the order was issued.
(5) The hearing request form must be in substantially the
following form:
___________________________________________________________________
IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF
THE STATE OF OREGON
FOR THE COUNTY OF _______
_____________, )
PETITIONER, ) NO.____
)
) REQUEST
FOR
and ) HEARING
)
_____________, )
Respondent. )
I
request a hearing.
___ I object to the Protective Order of Restraint
because I disagree with the representation of the
status quo in the following particulars:
_______________________________
_______________________________
_______________________________
_______________________________
_______________________________.
___ I object to the Temporary Custody and Parenting
Time Order on the ground that the child was not in immediate danger at the time
the order was issued.
____________________
Signature
DATE:____________________
ADDRESS:____________________
____________________
TELEPHONE:____________________
___________________________________________________________________
(6) As used in this section:
(a) "Child's usual place of residence" has the
meaning given that term in ORS 107.138.
(b) "Party's usual contact and [visitation] parenting time,"
"present placement and daily schedule of the child" and "current
schedule and daily routine of the child" have the meanings given
"parent's usual contact and [visitation] parenting time," "present
placement and daily schedule of the child" and "current schedule and
daily routine of the child" in ORS 107.138.
NOTE: Corrects
terminology in (6)(b).
SECTION 20.
ORS 107.437 is amended to read:
107.437. (1) A person entitled to physical custody of a child
may make an ex parte application for an order of assistance to a court of any
county:
(a) In which a child is located if the person is entitled to
the physical custody of the child under a valid and current order issued in
this state; or
(b) In which a valid and current foreign custody order has been
filed with a petition as provided in subsection (3) of this section.
(2) The application must include a certified copy of the
custody order. The order of assistance may direct a law enforcement agency
having jurisdiction where the child is located to use any reasonable means and
force to deliver the child as directed by the court. The court may issue an
order of assistance upon the sworn affidavit of the applicant and a finding of
the court that:
(a) The applicant is entitled to physical custody of the child
under a valid and current custody order; and
(b) The child is being held by another person in substantial
violation of the custody order.
(3) When the application for an order of assistance is made to
a court in which the custody order has been entered or registered, the
applicant shall make the application in the form of a motion. In all other
cases, the applicant shall make the application in the form of a petition. The
court may not charge a filing fee for a motion or petition filed under this
section.
(4) A court may not issue an order of assistance for the
purpose of enforcing parenting time or
visitation rights.
(5) Except for intentional torts committed outside the scope of
the peace officer's duties, a peace officer is not civilly or criminally liable
for any action taken in recovering the custody of a child pursuant to an order
issued under this section.
NOTE: Corrects
terminology in (4).
SECTION 21.
ORS 107.510 is amended to read:
107.510. As used in ORS 21.112 and 107.510 to 107.610:
(1) "Conciliation jurisdiction" means domestic
relations conciliation jurisdiction and authority [referred to under ORS 21.112 and] exercised under ORS 107.510 to
107.610 by a circuit court in any controversy existing between spouses which
may, unless a reconciliation or a settlement of the controversy is effected,
result in the dissolution or annulment of the marriage or in disruption of the
household.
(2) "Conciliation services" means domestic relations
counseling and related services obtained by a circuit court exercising
conciliation jurisdiction and used by the court in exercising that
jurisdiction.
(3) "Domestic relations suit" means suit for
dissolution of the marriage contract, annulment of the marriage or separation.
(4) "Separation" means separation from bed and board
and separate maintenance.
NOTE: Deletes
obsolete ORS reference in (1).
SECTION 22.
ORS 107.520 is amended to read:
107.520. The circuit court for any county or the circuit courts
of more than one county comprising a judicial district after making a
determination that the social conditions of the county or district make it
desirable to establish conciliation services for the full and proper
consideration of domestic relations suits filed in such county or district may
exercise conciliation jurisdiction and obtain, use and provide conciliation
services [referred to in ORS 21.112 and
exercised] under ORS 107.510 to 107.610. After conciliation jurisdiction
has been established the circuit court or courts of such county or district may
at any time determine that the need for such service does not warrant its
continuance and terminate the same.
NOTE: Deletes
obsolete ORS reference.
SECTION 23.
ORS 107.610 is amended to read:
107.610. Persons performing conciliation services [referred to in ORS 21.112 and exercised]
under ORS 107.510 to 107.610 shall have minimum educational and experience
qualifications of a master's degree in the behavioral sciences; or a bachelor's
degree and one year's graduate training, both in the behavioral sciences plus
two years' paid case work or clinical experience; or a bachelor's degree in the
behavioral sciences plus four years' paid case work or clinical experience.
NOTE: Deletes
obsolete ORS reference.
SECTION 24.
ORS 107.765 is amended to read:
107.765. (1) In a domestic relations suit [in a circuit court providing mediation under ORS 107.755 to 107.785],
where it appears on the face of one or more pleadings, appearances, petitions
or motions, including any form of application for the setting aside, alteration
or modification of an order or decree, that custody, parenting time or
visitation of a child [are] is contested, the court [shall] may, when appropriate, refer the matter for mediation of the
contested issues prior to or concurrent with the setting of the matter for
hearing. The purpose of the mediation [shall
be] is to assist the parties in
reaching a workable settlement of the contested issues instead of litigating
those issues before the court. Unless
the court provides for the mediation of financial issues under ORS 107.755 (4),
the mediator shall not consider issues of property division or spousal or child
support, in connection with the mediation of a dispute concerning child
custody, parenting time or visitation, or otherwise, without the written
approval of both parties or their counsel.
(2) The mediator shall report to the court and to counsel for
the parties the outcome of the mediation at the conclusion of the mediation
proceeding. The mediator shall report in writing to the court and to counsel
for the parties any agreement reached by the parties as a result of the
mediation, and the agreement shall be incorporated in a proposed order or
decree provision prepared for the court. If the parties do not reach an
agreement, the mediator shall report only
that fact to the court and to counsel for the parties, but shall not make a
recommendation to the court [as to child
custody, parenting time or visitation] without the written consent of the
parties or their counsel.
NOTE: Re-creates
amendments to statute by section 2, chapter 475, Oregon Laws 1997, that were
negated due to conflict with other 1997 Act.
SECTION 25.
ORS 109.175 is amended to read:
109.175. If paternity of a child born out of wedlock is
established pursuant to a petition filed under ORS 109.125 or an order or
judgment entered pursuant to ORS 109.124 to 109.230 or ORS 416.400 to 416.470,
or if paternity is established by the filing of a [joint declaration] voluntary
acknowledgment of paternity as provided by ORS 109.070 [(5)]
(1)(e), the parent with physical custody at the time of filing of the
petition or the notice under ORS 416.415, or the parent with physical custody
at the time of the filing of the [joint
declaration] voluntary
acknowledgment of paternity, has sole legal custody until a court
specifically orders otherwise. The first time the court determines who should
have legal custody, neither parent shall have the burden of proving a change of
circumstances. The court shall give primary consideration to the best interests
and welfare of the child and shall consider all the standards set out in ORS
107.137.
NOTE: Corrects
terminology and ORS reference.
SECTION 26.
ORS 116.113 is amended to read:
116.113. (1) If no objections to the final account and petition
for distribution are filed, or if objections are filed, upon the hearing, the
court shall give its decree of final distribution. In its decree the court
shall designate the persons in whom title to the estate available for
distribution is vested and the portion of the estate or property to which each
is entitled under the will, by agreement approved by the court or pursuant to
intestate succession. The decree shall also contain any findings of the court
in respect to:
(a) Advancements.
(b) Election against will by the surviving spouse.
(c) Renunciation.
(d) Lapse.
(e) Adjudicated controversies.
(f) Partial distribution, which shall be confirmed or modified.
(g) Retainer.
(h) Claims for which a special fund is set aside, and the
amount set aside.
(i) Contingent claims that have been allowed and are still
unpaid.
(j) Approval of the final account in whole or in part.
(2) The personal representative is not entitled to approval of
the final account until Oregon income and personal property taxes, if any, have
been paid and appropriate receipts and clearances therefor have been filed, or
until payment of those taxes has been secured by bond, deposit or otherwise,
provided, however, that no such receipts or clearances shall be required with
regard to damages accepted upon settlement of a claim or recovered on a
judgment in an action for wrongful death as provided in ORS 30.010 to 30.100 [and 30.698].
(3) If, by agreement approved by the court, property is
distributed to persons in whom title is vested by the decree of final
distribution otherwise than as provided by the will or pursuant to intestate
succession, the decree operates as a transfer of the property between those
persons.
(4) The decree of final distribution is a conclusive
determination of the persons who are the successors in interest to the estate
and of the extent and character of their interest therein, subject only to the
right of appeal and the power of the court to vacate the decree.
NOTE: Deletes
incorrect ORS reference in (2).
SECTION 27.
ORS 135.905 is amended to read:
135.905. (1) Whenever a defendant accused of committing a crime
participates in a diversion agreement under ORS 135.881 to 135.901 or [813.210 to 813.230] under ORS 813.210, 813.215, 813.220 and 813.230, the defendant, as
a condition of the diversion, shall pay the unitary assessment for which the
defendant would have been liable under ORS 137.290 if the defendant had been
convicted. The district attorney, or the city attorney if the case is
prosecuted by the city attorney, shall include in the diversion agreement a
provision setting forth the defendant's obligation. If the diversion is
terminated and criminal proceedings are resumed against defendant, any payment
made by the defendant under this subsection shall be refunded upon subsequent
acquittal of the defendant or dismissal of the case.
(2) Assessments under this section shall be paid within 90 days
of imposition, unless the court allows payment at a later time. The assessments
shall be paid to the clerk of the court, who shall account for and distribute
the moneys as provided in ORS 137.293 and 137.295.
NOTE: Inserts
appropriate ORS string citation.
SECTION 28.
ORS 144.101 is amended to read:
144.101. (1) The State Board of Parole and Post-Prison
Supervision has jurisdiction over imposition of conditions of post-prison
supervision and sanctioning for violations of those conditions for a person
convicted of a felony if:
(a) The term of imprisonment imposed on the person is more than
12 months;
(b) The felony is classified as crime category 8, 9, 10 or 11
of the sentencing guidelines grid of the Oregon Criminal Justice Commission;
(c) The person is subject to a sentence under ORS 137.700 or
137.707;
(d) The person is sentenced as a dangerous offender under ORS
161.725 and 161.737;
(e) The person is subject to a term of post-prison supervision
under ORS 144.103;
(f) The person is committed to the custody of the Department of
Corrections under ORS 137.124;
(g) The responsibility for correctional services for the person
has reverted to the department under ORS 423.483 [or 423.545]; or
(h) No local supervisory authority is responsible for
correctional services for the person under the laws of this state.
(2) Except as provided in subsection (1) of this section, a
local supervisory authority has jurisdiction over imposition of conditions of
post-prison supervision and sanctions for violations of those conditions for a
person sentenced to a term of imprisonment of 12 months or less.
(3) If a local supervisory authority imposes conditions of
post-prison supervision or sanctions for violations of those conditions, the
person may request the board to review the conditions or sanctions. The board
shall review the request and may, at its discretion, review the conditions and
sanctions, under rules adopted by the board.
(4) Nothing in this section affects the jurisdiction of the
board over imposition of conditions of parole and sanctioning for violations of
those conditions.
NOTE: Deletes
reference to repealed statute in (1)(g).
SECTION 29.
ORS 153.130 is amended to read:
153.130. (1) Except as otherwise specifically provided for an
infraction, a uniform citation conforming to the requirements of this section
shall be used for all infraction offenses subject to ORS 8.665, 153.110 to
153.310 and 153.990. This section does not prohibit the use of a uniform
citation:
(a) For offenses other than infraction offenses subject to ORS
8.665, 153.110 to 153.310 and 153.990.
(b) Containing other language in addition to that specified in
this section.
(2) The citation shall consist of at least four parts.
Additional parts may be inserted by law enforcement agencies for administrative
use. The required parts are:
(a) The complaint.
(b) The abstract of record.
(c) The police record.
(d) The summons.
(3) Each of the parts shall contain the information or blanks required
by rules of the Supreme Court under ORS 1.525.
(4) The complaint shall contain a form of certificate in which
the [complaint] complainant shall certify, under the penalties provided in ORS
153.990, that the complainant has reasonable grounds to believe, and does
believe, that the person cited committed the offense contrary to law. A
certificate conforming to this [section]
subsection shall be deemed
equivalent of a sworn complaint.
NOTE: Corrects word
choice and internal reference in (4).
SECTION 30.
ORS 153.800 is amended to read:
153.800. (1) Any court of this state may establish a Violations
Bureau and designate the clerk or deputy clerk of the court or any other
appropriate person to act as a violations clerk for the Violations Bureau. A
Violations Bureau shall be established by each circuit court unless the Chief
Justice of the Supreme Court issues a written exemption to the presiding judge
[appointed under ORS 1.169] for the court. The violations clerk
shall serve under the direction and control of the court appointing the clerk.
(2) A violations clerk may exercise authority over any offense,
including but not limited to violations described in ORS 161.565 and
infractions, for which the only penalty that may be imposed is a fine or
forfeiture. In addition, offenses that may be made subject to the authority of
the violations clerk include the following:
(a) Violations of ordinances or regulations adopted by a
political subdivision of the state if the only penalty that may be imposed for
violation of the ordinance or regulation is a fine or forfeiture.
(b) Misdemeanor charges that a district attorney elects to
treat as a violation under the provisions of ORS 161.565.
(3) Subject to subsection (2) of this section, a court
establishing a Violations Bureau shall by order specify the offenses that are
subject to the authority of the violations clerk.
(4) Except as provided in subsection (7) of this section, the
violations clerk shall accept:
(a) Written appearance, waiver of trial, plea of guilty and
payment of fine, costs and assessments for offenses that are subject to the
authority of the violations clerk; or
(b) Payment of bail for offenses that are subject to the
authority of the violations clerk.
(5) The court shall establish schedules, within the limits
prescribed by law, of the amounts of penalties to be imposed for first, second
and subsequent violations, designating each offense specifically or by class.
The order of the court establishing the schedules shall be prominently posted
in the place where penalties established under the schedule are paid. All
amounts must be paid to, receipted by and accounted for by the violations clerk
in the same manner as other payments on money judgments are received by the
court.
(6) Any person charged with an offense within the authority of
the violations clerk may:
(a) Upon signing an appearance, plea of guilty and waiver of
trial, pay the clerk the penalty established for the offense charged, including
any costs and assessments authorized by law.
(b) Pay the clerk the bail established for the offense. Payment
of bail under this paragraph constitutes consent to forfeiture of bail and
disposition of the offense by the clerk as provided by the rules of the court.
Payment of bail under this paragraph is not consent to forfeiture of bail if
the bail is accompanied by a plea of not guilty or a request for hearing.
(7) A person who has been found guilty of, or who has signed a
plea of guilty to, one or more previous offenses in the preceding 12 months within
the jurisdiction of the court shall not be permitted to appear before the
violations clerk unless the court, by general order applying to certain
specified offenses, permits such appearance.
NOTE: Deletes
reference to repealed statute in (1).
SECTION 31.
ORS 163.105 is amended to read:
163.105. Notwithstanding the provisions of ORS chapter 144[, ORS 421.165] and ORS 421.450 to 421.490:
(1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in ORS 137.700, when a
defendant is convicted of aggravated murder as defined by ORS 163.095, the
defendant shall be sentenced, pursuant to ORS 163.150, to death, life
imprisonment without the possibility of release or parole or life imprisonment.
(b) A person sentenced to life imprisonment without the
possibility of release or parole under this section shall not have that
sentence suspended, deferred or commuted by any judicial officer, and the State
Board of Parole and Post-Prison Supervision may not parole the prisoner nor
reduce the period of confinement in any manner whatsoever. The Department of
Corrections or any executive official may not permit the prisoner to
participate in any sort of release or furlough program.
(c) If sentenced to life imprisonment, the court shall order
that the defendant shall be confined for a minimum of 30 years without
possibility of parole, release on work release or any form of temporary leave
or employment at a forest or work camp.
(2) At any time after 25 years from the date of imposition of a
minimum period of confinement pursuant to subsection (1)(c) of this section,
the State Board of Parole and Post-Prison Supervision, upon the petition of a
prisoner so confined, shall hold a hearing to determine if the prisoner is
likely to be rehabilitated within a reasonable period of time. The sole issue
shall be whether or not the prisoner is likely to be rehabilitated within a
reasonable period of time. The proceeding shall be conducted in the manner
prescribed for a contested case hearing under ORS 183.310 to 183.550 except
that:
(a) The prisoner shall have the burden of proving by a
preponderance of the evidence the likelihood of rehabilitation within a
reasonable period of time; and
(b) The prisoner shall have the right, if the prisoner is
without sufficient funds to employ an attorney, to be represented by legal
counsel, appointed by the board, at board expense.
(3) If, upon hearing all of the evidence, the board, upon a
unanimous vote of all of its members, finds that the prisoner is capable of
rehabilitation and that the terms of the prisoner's confinement should be
changed to life imprisonment with the possibility of parole, or work release,
it shall enter an order to that effect and the order shall convert the terms of
the prisoner's confinement to life imprisonment with the possibility of parole
or work release. Otherwise the board shall deny the relief sought in the
petition.
(4) Not less than two years after the denial of the relief
sought in a petition under this section, the prisoner may petition again for a
change in the terms of confinement. Further petitions for a change may be filed
at intervals of not less than two years thereafter.
NOTE: Deletes
reference to repealed statute in first sentence.
SECTION 32.
ORS 167.162 is amended to read:
167.162. (1) A gambling device is a public nuisance.
Any peace officer shall
summarily seize any such device that the peace officer finds and deliver it to
the custody of the sheriff, who shall hold it subject to the order of the court
having jurisdiction.
(2) Whenever it appears to the court that the gambling device
has been possessed in violation of ORS 167.147, the court shall adjudge
forfeiture thereof and shall order the sheriff to destroy the device and to
deliver any coins taken therefrom to the county treasurer, who shall deposit
them to the general fund of the county. However, when the defense provided by
ORS 167.147 (3) is raised by the defendant, the gambling device or slot machine
shall not be forfeited or destroyed until after a final judicial determination
that the defense is not applicable. If the defense is applicable, the gambling
device or slot machine shall be returned to its owner.
(3) The seizure of the gambling device or operating part
thereof constitutes sufficient notice to the owner or person in possession
thereof. The sheriff shall make return to the court showing that the sheriff
has complied with the order.
(4) Whenever, in any proceeding in court for the forfeiture of
any gambling device except a slot machine seized for a violation of ORS
167.147, and such forfeiture is decreed, the court shall have exclusive
jurisdiction to remit or mitigate the forfeiture.
(5) In any such proceeding the court shall not allow the claim
of any claimant for remission or mitigation unless and until the claimant
proves that the claimant:
(a) [that the claimant]
Has an interest in [such] the gambling device, as owner or
otherwise, which the claimant acquired in good faith[,].
(b) [that the claimant
had] At no time had any
knowledge or reason to believe that it was being or would be used in violation
of law relating to gambling.
(6) In any proceeding in court for the forfeiture of any
gambling device except a slot machine seized for a violation of law relating to
gambling, the court may in its discretion order delivery thereof to any
claimant who shall establish the right to the immediate possession thereof, and
shall execute, with one or more sureties, or by a surety company, approved by
the court, and deliver to the court, a bond in such sum as the court shall
determine, running to the State of Oregon, and conditioned to return such
gambling device at the time of trial, and conditioned further that, if the
gambling device be not returned at the time of trial, the bond may in the
discretion of the court stand in lieu of and be forfeited in the same manner as
such gambling device.
NOTE: Restructures
(5) for conformance to legislative form and style; corrects syntax.
SECTION 33.
ORS 167.164 is amended to read:
167.164. (1) On and after December 1, 1991, a person commits
the crime of possession of a gray machine if the person manufactures, sells,
leases, transports, places, possesses or services a gray machine or conducts or
negotiates a transaction affecting or designed to affect the ownership, custody
or use of a gray machine.
(2) Possession of a gray machine is a Class C felony.
(3) Violation of, solicitation to violate, attempt to violate
or conspiracy to violate subsection (1) of this section constitutes prohibited
conduct for purposes of ORS chapter 475A [and
ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and
475A.135], and shall give rise to civil in rem forfeiture as provided in
ORS chapter 475A [and ORS 167.243,
167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135]. A
judgment providing for forfeiture may direct that the machine be destroyed.
(4) It is a defense to a charge of possession of a gray machine
if the machine that caused the charge to be brought was manufactured prior to
1958 and was not operated for purposes of unlawful gambling.
NOTE: Deletes
superfluous ORS references in (3).
SECTION 34.
ORS 171.580 is amended to read:
171.580. (1) There is created a Joint Legislative Audit
Committee consisting of the chair of the House Ways and Means Committee, the
chair of the Senate Ways and Means Committee, three members of the House of
Representatives appointed by the Speaker[,]
and three members of the Senate
appointed by the President.
(2) The committee has a continuing existence and may meet, act
and conduct its business during sessions of the Legislative Assembly or any
recess thereof and in the interim between sessions.
(3) The term of a member shall expire upon the convening of the
Legislative Assembly in regular session next following the commencement of the
member's term. When a vacancy occurs in the membership of the committee in the
interim between sessions, until such vacancy is filled, the membership of the
committee shall be considered not to include the vacant position for the
purpose of determining whether a quorum is present and a quorum is a majority
of the remaining members.
(4) Members of the committee shall receive an amount equal to
that authorized under ORS 171.072 from funds appropriated to the Legislative
Assembly for each day spent in the performance of their duties as members of
the committee or any subcommittee thereof in lieu of reimbursement for in-state
travel expenses. However, when engaged in out-of-state travel, members shall be
entitled to receive their actual and necessary expenses therefor in lieu of the
amount authorized by this subsection. Payment shall be made from funds
appropriated to the Legislative Assembly.
(5) Action of the committee shall be taken only upon the
affirmative vote of the majority of members of the committee.
(6) The Legislative Fiscal Office shall furnish to the
committee such services of personnel and such other facilities as are necessary
to enable the committee to carry out its functions as directed by law, with
such assistance as the Division of Audits and Oregon Department of Administrative
Services can provide.
NOTE: Inserts
appropriate conjunction in (1).
SECTION 35.
ORS 179.380 is amended to read:
179.380. (1) The Department of Corrections and the Mental
Health and Developmental Disability Services Division shall authorize the
employment of all necessary physicians, [matrons,]
attendants, nurses, engineers, [watchmen,]
messengers, clerks, guards, cooks, waiters and other officers and employees not
specifically authorized by law and necessary to the successful maintenance of
their respective institutions. The amounts expended for the services of such
officers and employees shall not exceed the amounts provided therefor in the
biennial appropriations for the institution.
(2) The department and division shall designate in their
respective rules which employees shall be officers, and shall require all
officers to take and subscribe to an oath of office and, if the circumstances
require it, to furnish bonds.
NOTE: Deletes
gender-specific language.
SECTION 36.
ORS 179.479 is amended to read:
179.479. (1) The superintendent or other chief executive
officer of an institution described in ORS 179.321 may, when authorized by
regulation or direction of the Department of Corrections or Mental Health and Developmental Disability
Services Division [having
jurisdiction over the institution], convey an inmate to a physician, clinic
or hospital, including the Oregon Health Sciences University, for medical,
surgical or dental treatment when such treatment cannot satisfactorily be
provided at the institution. An inmate conveyed for treatment pursuant to this
section shall be kept in the custody of the institution from which the inmate
is conveyed.
(2) The department [of
Corrections] and division, respectively,
shall prescribe rules and regulations governing conveyances authorized by this
section.
NOTE: Sets forth
official title; eliminates unnecessary provision; corrects punctuation in (2).
SECTION 37.
ORS 181.536 is amended to read:
181.536. (1) The Department of Human Resources shall by rule
set forth a timetable that does not exceed 12 months in length for providers to
obtain criminal records checks for subject individuals already employed by the
provider if the individuals have not undergone a criminal records check process
comparable to the one set forth in ORS 181.537[, as amended by section 1, chapter 753, Oregon Laws 1997].
(2) The Department of Human Resources shall seek federal or
other matching funds that will reduce the cost to providers of complying with
the requirements of ORS 181.537.
NOTE: Deletes
unnecessary session law reference in (1).
SECTION 38. ORS 181.642, 181.655, 181.667, 181.690,
181.700, 181.705, 181.711 and 181.712 are added to and made a part of ORS
181.610 to 181.670.
NOTE: Adds statutes
to appropriate series.
SECTION 39.
ORS 181.700 is amended to read:
181.700. It is the intent of the [legislature] Legislative
Assembly in creating [this agency]
the Board on Public Safety Standards and
Training to provide for the coordination of training programs for police
officers, [and] certified reserve officers, [to provide for the coordination of training programs for]
corrections officers[, to provide for the
coordination of training programs for] and
parole and probation officers and to set standards. [The moneys provided in chapter 721, Oregon Laws 1961, are to be used
for this purpose primarily and are not intended to replace other existing
contributions to the functions outlined in ORS 181.610 to 181.700.]
NOTE: Sets forth
appropriate official titles; corrects syntax; deletes obsolete provisions.
SECTION 40.
ORS 183.722 is amended to read:
183.722. (1) If the Legislative Counsel determines under ORS [183.725] 183.720 that a proposed or adopted rule is not within the intent
and scope of the enabling legislation purporting to authorize the rule's
adoption, or that the rule is not constitutional, and the Legislative Counsel
has provided a copy of that determination to the state agency pursuant to
183.720 (6), the state agency shall either make a written response to the
determination or appear at the meeting of the Legislative Counsel Committee at
which the committee will consider the determinations. The response of the state
agency shall indicate if the agency intends to repeal, amend or take other
action with respect to the rule.
(2) If the Legislative Counsel determines under ORS [183.725] 183.720 that a proposed or adopted rule is not within the intent
and scope of the enabling legislation purporting to authorize the rule's
adoption, or that the rule is not constitutional, and the Legislative Counsel
Committee is not satisfied with the response to those issues made by the state
agency, the committee may request that one or more representatives of the state
agency appear at a subsequent meeting of the committee along with a representative
of the Oregon Department of Administrative Services for the purpose of further
explaining the position of the state agency.
(3) If a state agency is requested under subsection (2) of this
section to appear at a subsequent meeting of the committee along with a
representative of the Oregon Department of Administrative Services, the state
agency shall promptly notify the department of the request. The notification to
the department must be in writing, and must include a copy of the determinations
made by the Legislative Counsel and a copy of any written response made by the
agency to the determinations.
NOTE: Corrects ORS
references in (1) and (2).
SECTION 40a. If House Bill 2379 becomes law, section 40
of this 1999 Act (amending ORS 183.722) is repealed.
SECTION 41.
ORS 184.345 is amended to read:
184.345. (1) The Oregon Department of Administrative Services
shall provide on a reimbursable basis
[such] administrative and other
services, as agreed to, to:
(a) The Department of
Corrections;[,]
(b) The Mental Health and
Developmental Disability Services Division;
and
(c) The State Board
of Education [as such divisions,
Department of Corrections and the Oregon Department of Administrative Services
may agree on a reimbursable basis].
(2) In addition to its duties under subsection (1) of this
section, the Oregon Department of Administrative Services shall
provide clerical support to the Energy Facility Siting Council.
NOTE: Corrects
syntax.
SECTION 42. ORS 190.130 is added to and made a part of
ORS 190.003 to 190.125.
NOTE: Adds statute
to appropriate series.
SECTION 43.
ORS 192.105 is amended to read:
192.105. (1) Except as otherwise provided by law, the State
Archivist may grant to public officials of the state or any political
subdivision, as defined in ORS 192.072, specific or continuing authorization
for the retention or disposition of public records which are in their custody,
after the records have been in existence for a specified period of time. In
granting such authorization, the State Archivist shall consider the value of
the public records for legal, administrative or research purposes and shall
establish rules for procedure for the retention or disposition of the public
records. In order to protect and preserve the private legal rights of a person
who as a minor was the subject of a record relating to child abuse and foster
home placement and supervision, and to retain such a record for use in any
subsequent counseling required by such a person, the State Archivist shall
retain all records of the State Office for Services to Children and Families [of the Department of Human Resources]
that relate to child abuse for:
(a) 75 years if the abuse is substantiated; and
(b) 30 years if the abuse is unsubstantiated.
(2)(a) The State Archivist shall provide instructions and forms
for obtaining authorization. Upon receipt of an authorization or upon the
effective date of the applicable rule, a state official who has public records
in custody shall destroy or otherwise dispose of those records that are older
than the specified period of retention established by the authorization or
rule. An official of a local government may destroy such records if such
destruction is consistent with the policy of the local government. No record of
accounts or financial affairs subject to audit shall be destroyed until
released for destruction by the responsible auditor or representative of the
auditor. If federal funds are involved, records retention requirements of the
United States Government must be observed. Each state agency and political
subdivision shall designate a records officer to coordinate its records
management program and to serve as liaison with the State Archivist. The county
records officers for the purposes of ORS 192.001, 192.050, 192.060, 192.105,
192.130, 357.825, 357.835 and 357.875 shall be those officers identified in ORS
205.110. The State Archivist shall require periodic reports from records
officers about records management programs. The State Archivist may require
state agency records designated as inactive by the State Archivist to be
transferred to the State Records Center, pending the availability of space.
(b) The State Archivist shall determine which parts of a public
record are acceptable for admission to the State Records Center and may require
the state agency or governing body to cause the unacceptable part to be removed
before the record is submitted to the State Records Center.
(3) Authorizations granted prior to January 1, 1978, by any
state agency, the State Archivist, or any board of county commissioners, to
state agencies, schools, school districts, soil and water conservation
districts, or county officials and offices shall remain in effect until they
are adopted or amended by the State Archivist.
(4) This section does not apply to legislative records, as
defined in ORS 171.410.
NOTE: Deletes
unnecessary reference to Department of Human Resources in (1).
SECTION 44.
ORS 192.650 is amended to read:
192.650. (1) The governing body of a public body shall provide
for the taking of written minutes of all its meetings. Neither a full
transcript nor a recording of the meeting is required, except as otherwise
provided by law, but the written minutes must give a true reflection of the
matters discussed at the meeting and the views of the participants. All minutes
shall be available to the public within a reasonable time after the meeting,
and shall include at least the following information:
(a) All members of the governing body present;
(b) All motions, proposals, resolutions, orders, ordinances and
measures proposed and their disposition;
(c) The results of all votes and, except for public bodies
consisting of more than 25 members unless requested by a member of that body,
the vote of each member by name;
(d) The substance of any discussion on any matter; and
(e) Subject to ORS 192.410 to 192.505 relating to public
records, a reference to any document discussed at the meeting but such
reference shall not affect the status of the document under ORS 192.410 to
192.505.
(2) Minutes of executive sessions shall be kept in accordance
with subsection (1) of this section. However, the minutes of a hearing held
under ORS 332.061 shall contain only the material not excluded under ORS
332.061 (2). Instead of written minutes, a record of any executive session may
be kept in the form of a sound tape recording, which need not be transcribed unless otherwise provided by law. [Material the disclosure of which] If the disclosure of certain material
is inconsistent with the purpose for which a meeting under ORS 192.660 is
authorized to be held, that material
may be excluded from disclosure. However, excluded materials are authorized to
be examined privately by a court in any legal action and the court shall
determine their admissibility.
NOTE: Corrects
punctuation and syntax in (2).
SECTION 45.
ORS 192.690 is amended to read:
192.690. (1) ORS 192.610 to 192.690 shall not apply to the
deliberations of the State Board of Parole and Post-Prison Supervision, the
Psychiatric Security Review Board, [of]
state agencies conducting hearings on contested cases in accordance with the
provisions of ORS 183.310 to 183.550, the review by the Workers' Compensation
Board or the Employment Appeals Board of similar hearings on contested cases,
meetings of the state lawyers assistance committees[,] or the local lawyers
assistance committees in accordance with the provisions of ORS 9.545, the
multidisciplinary teams required to review child abuse and neglect fatalities
in accordance with the provisions of ORS 418.747, the peer review committees in
accordance with the provisions of ORS 441.055, mediation conducted under
sections 2 to 10, chapter 967, Oregon Laws 1989, any judicial proceeding or [to] meetings of the Oregon Health
Sciences University Board of Directors or its designated committee regarding
candidates for the position of university president.
(2) Because of the grave risk to public health and safety that
would be posed by misappropriation or misapplication of information considered
during such review and approval, ORS 192.610 to 192.690 shall not apply to
review and approval of security programs by the Energy Facility Siting Council
pursuant to ORS 469.530.
NOTE: Corrects
syntax in (1).
SECTION 45a. If House Bill 2451 becomes law, section 45
of this 1999 Act (amending ORS 192.690) is repealed and ORS 192.690, as amended
by section 4, chapter 171, Oregon Laws 1999 (Enrolled House Bill 2451), is
amended to read:
192.690. (1) ORS 192.610 to 192.690 shall not apply to the
deliberations of the State Board of Parole and Post-Prison Supervision, the
Psychiatric Security Review Board, [of]
state agencies conducting hearings on contested cases in accordance with the
provisions of ORS 183.310 to 183.550, the review by the Workers' Compensation
Board or the Employment Appeals Board of similar hearings on contested cases,
meetings of state or local lawyers assistance committees operating under the
provisions of ORS 9.545, meetings of the personal and practice management
assistance committees operating under the provisions of ORS 9.545, the
multidisciplinary teams required to review child abuse and neglect fatalities
in accordance with the provisions of ORS 418.747, the peer review committees in
accordance with the provisions of ORS 441.055, mediation conducted under
sections 2 to 10, chapter 967, Oregon Laws 1989, any judicial proceeding or [to] meetings of the Oregon Health
Sciences University Board of Directors or its designated committee regarding
candidates for the position of university president.
(2) Because of the grave risk to public health and safety that
would be posed by misappropriation or misapplication of information considered
during such review and approval, ORS 192.610 to 192.690 shall not apply to
review and approval of security programs by the Energy Facility Siting Council
pursuant to ORS 469.530.
SECTION 46.
ORS 192.690, as amended by section 14, chapter 967, Oregon Laws 1989, section
33, chapter 18, Oregon Laws 1993, section 4, chapter 318, Oregon Laws 1993,
section 2, chapter 36, Oregon Laws 1995, and section 62c, chapter 162, Oregon
Laws 1995, is amended to read:
192.690. (1) ORS 192.610 to 192.690 shall not apply to the
deliberations of the State Board of Parole and Post-Prison Supervision, the
Psychiatric Security Review Board, [of]
state agencies conducting hearings on contested cases in accordance with the
provisions of ORS 183.310 to 183.550, the review by the Workers' Compensation
Board or the Employment Appeals Board of similar hearings on contested cases,
meetings of the state lawyers assistance committees[,] or the local lawyers
assistance committees in accordance with the provisions of ORS 9.545, the
multidisciplinary teams required to review child abuse and neglect fatalities
in accordance with the provisions of ORS 418.747, the peer review committees in
accordance with the provisions of ORS 441.055, any judicial proceeding or [to] meetings of the Oregon Health
Sciences University Board of Directors or its designated committee regarding
candidates for the position of university president.
(2) Because of the grave risk to public health and safety that
would be posed by misappropriation or misapplication of information considered
during such review and approval, ORS 192.610 to 192.690 shall not apply to
review and approval of security programs by the Energy Facility Siting Council
pursuant to ORS 469.530.
NOTE: Corrects
syntax in (1).
SECTION 46a. If
House Bill 2451 becomes law, section 46 of this 1999 Act (amending ORS 192.690)
is repealed and ORS 192.690, as amended by section 14, chapter 967, Oregon Laws
1989, section 33, chapter 18, Oregon Laws 1993, section 4, chapter 318, Oregon
Laws 1993, section 2, chapter 36, Oregon Laws 1995, section 62c, chapter 162,
Oregon Laws 1995, and section 5, chapter 171, Oregon Laws 1999 (Enrolled House
Bill 2451), is amended to read:
192.690. (1) ORS 192.610 to 192.690 shall not apply to the
deliberations of the State Board of Parole and Post-Prison Supervision, the
Psychiatric Security Review Board, [of]
state agencies conducting hearings on contested cases in accordance with the
provisions of ORS 183.310 to 183.550, the review by the Workers' Compensation
Board or the Employment Appeals Board of similar hearings on contested cases,
meetings of state or local lawyers assistance committees operating under the
provisions of ORS 9.545, meetings of the personal and practice management
assistance committees operating under the provisions of ORS 9.545, the
multidisciplinary teams required to review child abuse and neglect fatalities
in accordance with the provisions of ORS 418.747, the peer review committees in
accordance with the provisions of ORS 441.055, any judicial proceeding or [to] meetings of the Oregon Health
Sciences University Board of Directors or its designated committee regarding
candidates for the position of university president.
(2) Because of the grave risk to public health and safety that
would be posed by misappropriation or misapplication of information considered
during such review and approval, ORS 192.610 to 192.690 shall not apply to
review and approval of security programs by the Energy Facility Siting Council
pursuant to ORS 469.530.
SECTION 47. Nothing in the amendments to ORS 192.690 by
section 45, 45a, 46 or 46a of this 1999 Act affects the operative date
provisions of section 17, chapter 967, Oregon Laws 1989, as amended by section
1, chapter 277, Oregon Laws 1995.
SECTION 48.
ORS 192.835 is amended to read:
192.835. As used in ORS 192.825 to 192.855:
(1) "Asymmetric
cryptosystem" means an algorithm or series of algorithms that provide a
secure key pair.
[(1)] (2) "Authentication
authority" means a person offering digital signature authentication
services.
[(2)] (3) "Certificate" means a
computer-based record that:
(a) Identifies the certification authority[.];
(b) Identifies the subscriber[.];
(c) Contains the subscriber's public key[.]; and
(d) Is digitally signed by the certification authority.
[(3)] (4) "Certification authority"
means a person who issues a certificate.
[(4)] (5) "Digital signature" means
a type of electronic signature that transforms a message using an asymmetric
cryptosystem such that a person having the initial message and the signer's
public key can accurately determine:
(a) Whether the transformation was created using the private
key that corresponds to the signer's public key[.]; and
(b) Whether the initial message has been altered since the
transformation was made. [A "key
pair" is a private key and its corresponding public key in an asymmetric
cryptosystem, under which the public key verifies a digital signature the
private key creates. An "asymmetric cryptosystem" is an algorithm or
series of algorithms which provide a secure key pair.]
[(5)] (6) "Electronic signature"
means any letters, characters or symbols, manifested by electronic or similar
means, executed or adopted by a party with an intent to authenticate a writing.
A writing is electronically signed if an electronic signature is logically
associated with such writing.
(7) "Key pair"
means a private key and its corresponding public key in an asymmetric
cryptosystem, under which the public key verifies a digital signature the
private key creates.
[(6)] (8) "Writing" includes
handwriting, printing, typewriting and all other methods and means of forming
letters and characters upon paper, stone, wood or other materials.
"Writing" also includes information that is created or stored in any
electronic medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.
NOTE: Restructures
statute for clarity and conformance to legislative form and style.
SECTION 49.
ORS 194.515 is amended to read:
194.515. (1) In taking an acknowledgment, the notarial officer
must determine, either from personal knowledge or from satisfactory evidence,
that the person appearing before the officer and making the acknowledgment is
the person whose true signature is on the instrument.
(2) In taking a verification upon oath or affirmation, the
notarial officer must determine, either from personal knowledge or from
satisfactory evidence, that the person appearing before the officer and making
the verification is the person whose true signature is on the statement
verified.
(3) In witnessing or attesting a signature the notarial officer
must determine, either from personal knowledge or from satisfactory evidence,
that the signature is that of the person appearing before the officer and named
therein.
(4) In certifying or attesting a copy of a document or other
item, the notarial officer must determine that the proffered copy is a full,
true and accurate transcription or reproduction of that which was copied.
(5) In making or noting a protest of a negotiable instrument a
notarial officer must determine the matters set forth in ORS 73.0505.
(6) A notarial officer has satisfactory evidence that a person
is the person whose true signature is on a document if that person:
(a) Is personally known to the notarial officer;
(b) Is identified upon the oath or affirmation of a credible
witness personally known to the notarial officer; or
(c) Is identified on the basis of identification documents.
(7) For purposes of this section, "personally known"
means familiarity with a person resulting from interactions with that person
over a period of time sufficient to eliminate every reasonable doubt that the
person has the identity claimed.
(8) For purposes of subsection (6)(c) of this section, a
notarial officer has satisfactory evidence upon which to identify a person if:
(a) The person produces at least one current document issued by
the Federal Government or a state, county, municipal or other local government
and containing the person's photograph, signature and physical description; or
(b) The person produces at least two current documents, each
issued by an institution, a business entity, the Federal Government or a state,
county, municipal or other local government and each containing the person's
signature.
(9) If a notarial officer is also an employee of a financial
institution, as defined in ORS [706.005] 706.008, and the person to be
identified is a customer of the financial institution, one of the two current
documents required under subsection (8)(b) of this section may be a signature
card signed by the customer and held by the financial institution in connection
with the financial institution's transactions with the customer.
NOTE: Corrects ORS
reference in (9).
SECTION 50.
ORS 196.645 is amended to read:
196.645. The following moneys shall be paid into the Oregon
Wetlands Mitigation Bank Revolving Fund Account:
(1) Any moneys appropriated for that purpose by the Legislative
Assembly;
(2) Moneys awarded for such purposes as specifically stipulated
under grants through the Federal Emergency Wetlands Resources Act of 1986, P.L.
99-645, or the Federal Coastal Zone Management Act of 1972, 16 U.S.C. 1451 et
seq., as amended;
(3) Moneys obtained by gift, bequest, donation or grant from
any other public or private source for the purposes of ORS 196.600 to [196.665 and 196.885] 196.655;
(4) Repayment of moneys from the account, including interest on
such moneys; and
(5) Moneys obtained from interest or other earnings from
investments of moneys in the account.
NOTE: Corrects
series reference in (3).
SECTION 51.
ORS 196.660 is amended to read:
196.660. ORS 196.600 to [196.665
and 196.885] 196.655 are
intended to be supplementary to, and are not intended to abrogate, any state or
federal law relating to wetlands.
NOTE: Corrects
series reference.
SECTION 52.
ORS 196.681 is amended to read:
196.681. (1) In accordance with rules adopted pursuant to this
chapter, the Division of State Lands shall:
(a) Review any proposed wetland conservation plan or proposed
amendment to an approved wetland conservation plan against the standards in
this section;
(b) Prepare a proposed order that approves, approves with
conditions or denies the proposed wetland conservation plan or proposed
amendment to an approved wetland conservation plan;
(c) Provide notice and the opportunity for public hearing and
comment on the proposed order;
(d) Consult with affected local, state and federal agencies;
and
(e) Consider the applicable findings made in the order of
acknowledgment issued by the Land
Conservation and Development Commission.
(2) The Director of the Division of State Lands may approve by
order a wetland conservation plan that includes the necessary elements of ORS
196.678 (2) and meets the standards of subsections (3) and (4) of this section.
(3) A wetland conservation plan shall comply with the following
standards:
(a) Uses and activities permitted in the plan including fill or
removal, or both, conform to sound policies of conservation and will not
interfere with public health and safety;
(b) Uses and activities permitted in the plan including fill or
removal, or both, are not inconsistent with the protection, conservation and
best use of the water resources of this state and the use of state waters for
navigation, fishing and public recreation; and
(c) Designation of wetlands for protection, conservation and
development is consistent with the resource functions and values of the area
and the capability of the wetland area to withstand alterations and maintain
important functions and values.
(4) Wetland areas may be designated for development including
fill or removal, or both, only if they meet the following standards:
(a) There is a public need for the proposed uses set forth in
the acknowledged comprehensive plan for the area;
(b) Any planned wetland losses shall be fully offset by
creation, restoration or enhancement of wetland functions and values or in an
estuarine area, estuarine resource replacement is consistent with ORS 196.830;
and
(c) Practicable, less damaging alternatives, including
alternative locations for the proposed use are not available.
(5) Approval by the director of a wetland conservation plan
shall be conditioned upon adoption by the affected local governments of
comprehensive plan policies and land use regulations consistent with and
sufficient to implement the wetland conservation plan. Appropriate implementing
measures may include the following planning and zoning requirements regulating:
(a) Adjacent lands or buffer areas necessary to maintain,
protect or restore wetland functions and values, including riparian vegetation,
and the uses to be allowed in those areas;
(b) Sites for mitigation of impacts from development activities;
(c) Upland areas adjacent to wetlands; and
(d) Activities or location of buildings, structures and
improvements which may affect wetland values or functions, such as storm water
runoff.
(6) The director shall issue an order approving, approving with
conditions or denying a wetland conservation plan, including a clear statement
of findings which sets forth the basis for the approval, conditioning or
denial. The order shall include:
(a) A clear statement of findings that the elements specified
in ORS 196.678 (2) have been developed;
(b) The findings in support of the determination of compliance
or noncompliance with the standards in subsections (3) and (4) of this section;
and
(c) The conditions under which fill or removal or both may
occur.
(7) The director may, as a part of an order approving a plan,
authorize site-specific fill or removal without an individual permit as
required by ORS 196.810 provided that:
(a) The director adopts findings demonstrating that fill or
removal for any proposed project complies with ORS 196.682 (1)(a) to (e); or
(b) The director adopts findings that specific areas of fill or
removal within areas designated as development in the plan meet the following
standards:
(A) The fill or removal approved by the order will result in
minimal impacts to the wetland system in the planning area;
(B) The public need for the proposed area of fill or removal
outweighs the environmental damage likely to result from full development;
(C) The director conditions any such order as necessary to [insure] ensure that the fill or removal, or both, is designed to minimize
impacts from implementing the project; and
(D) Full replacement of wetland losses is provided through
creation, restoration or enhancement of wetlands with comparable functions and
values.
(8) Upon a finding by the director that a fill or removal, or
both, authorized under subsection (7)(b) of this section has caused or is
likely to cause more than minimal adverse impact to the wetland system
considering required mitigation conditions, the director shall revise the order
to require individual permit review according to ORS 196.682 or provide
additional conditions to [insure] ensure that adverse impacts are
minimal. Such revision shall not be subject to ORS 196.684.
NOTE: Corrects
syntax in (1)(e); corrects grammar in (7)(b)(C) and (8).
SECTION 53.
ORS 196.795 is amended to read:
196.795 (1) The Division of State Lands shall continue to
pursue methods to streamline the process for administering permits for the
removal of material from the bed or banks of any waters of this state or for
filling the waters of this state, reducing paperwork, eliminating duplication,
increasing certainty and timeliness and enhancing resource protection. The
efforts of the Division of State Lands shall include but need not be limited to
applying to the United States Army Corps of Engineers for a state program
general permit as authorized in federal regulations implementing section 404 of
the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, and section 10 of the Rivers and
Harbors Act of 1899, as amended. In conjunction with these activities, the
Division of State Lands may continue to investigate the possibility of assuming
the federal regulatory program under 33 U.S.C. 1344(g) of the Federal Water
Pollution Control Act.
(2) The division shall report periodically to the Joint
Legislative Committee on Land Use on the progress in implementing subsection
(1) of this section [and shall provide a
written report to the Seventieth Legislative Assembly on the progress of the
division in implementing subsection (1) of this section].
NOTE: Deletes
obsolete provisions.
SECTION 54.
ORS 196.910 is amended to read:
196.910. The Division of State Lands shall:
(1) Monitor removal and fill activities, including but not
limited to prospecting and placer mining, within designated essential
indigenous anadromous salmonid habitat areas to determine the effects of such
activities on salmonid spawning and rearing habitat and compile the results in
an annual report.
(2) Cooperate with the State Department of Fish and Wildlife
and other interested parties to develop and distribute public education and
information materials designed to increase understanding and awareness of
permit requirements and acceptable removal and fill practices related to
prospecting and placer mining.
(3) Report periodically to the Joint Legislative Committee on
Land Use [and provide a written report to
the Seventieth Legislative Assembly] on the progress of the division in
implementing ORS 196.810 [as amended by
section 1, chapter 508, Oregon Laws 1997].
NOTE: Deletes
obsolete provisions.
SECTION 55.
ORS 197.274 is amended to read:
197.274. The Metro regional framework plan and Metro planning
goals and objectives are subject to review:
(1) For compliance with the statewide planning goals in the
same manner as a comprehensive plan for purposes of:
(a) Acknowledgment of compliance with the goals under ORS
197.251; and
(b) Post-acknowledgment procedures under ORS 197.610 to
197.646; and
(2) As a land use decision under ORS 197.805 to 197.860.
NOTE: Inserts
appropriate conjunction after (1)(a).
SECTION 56.
ORS 197.298 is amended to read:
197.298. (1) In addition to any requirements established by
rule addressing urbanization, land may not be included within an urban growth
boundary except under the following priorities:
(a) First priority is land that is designated urban reserve
land under ORS 195.145, rule or metropolitan service district action plan.
(b) If land under paragraph (a) of this subsection is
inadequate to accommodate the amount of land needed, second priority is land
adjacent to an urban growth boundary that is identified in an acknowledged
comprehensive plan as an exception area or nonresource land. Second priority
may include resource land that is completely surrounded by exception areas
unless such resource land is high-value farmland as described in ORS 215.710.
(c) If land under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this subsection is
inadequate to accommodate the amount of land needed, third priority is land
designated as marginal land pursuant to ORS 197.247 (1991 Edition).
(d) If land under paragraphs (a) to (c) of this subsection is
inadequate to accommodate the amount of land needed, fourth priority is land
designated in an acknowledged comprehensive plan for agriculture or forestry,
or both.
(2) Higher priority shall be given to land of lower capability
as measured by the capability classification system or by cubic foot site
class, whichever is appropriate for the current use.
(3) Land of lower priority under subsection (1) of this section
may be included in an urban growth boundary if land of higher priority is found
to be inadequate to accommodate the amount of land estimated in subsection (1)
of this section for one or more of the following reasons:
(a) Specific types of identified land needs cannot be
reasonably accommodated on higher priority lands;
(b) Future urban services could not reasonably be provided to
the higher priority lands due to
topographical or other physical constraints; or
(c) Maximum efficiency of land uses within a proposed urban
growth boundary requires inclusion of lower priority lands in order to include
or to provide services to higher priority lands.
NOTE: Corrects
terminology in (3)(b).
SECTION 57.
ORS 205.460 is amended to read:
205.460. (1) A person whose property is subject to an invalid
claim of encumbrance may petition the circuit court of the county in which the
person resides or in which the property is located for an order, which may be
granted ex parte, directing the encumbrance claimant to appear at a hearing
before the court and show cause why the claim of encumbrance should not be
stricken and other relief provided by this section should not be granted. The
court shall schedule the hearing no earlier than seven days after the date of
the order. The scheduled date of the hearing shall allow adequate time for
notice of the hearing under subsection (4) of this section.
(2) A petition under this section shall state the grounds upon
which relief is requested, and shall be supported by the affidavit of the
petitioner or the petitioner's attorney setting forth a concise statement of
the facts upon which the motion is based.
(3) The petition and affidavit described in subsection (2) of
this section shall be in substantially the following form:
___________________________________________________________________
IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF
THE STATE OF OREGON
FOR THE COUNTY OF _______
__________, )
Petitioner, ) Case
No. ____
)
) PETITION
FOR AN
) ORDER
STRIKING
v. ) AND
RELEASING
) ENCUMBRANCES,
) AWARDING
COSTS
) AND
ATTORNEY FEES
__________, ) AND
ORDER TO
Petitioner, _______ (insert name), by and through _______ (insert name and title of attorney for petitioner, if applicable), petitions this court, pursuant to ORS 205.460, for an order striking and releasing purported encumbrances, filed or recorded against Petitioner by Respondent, _______ (insert name or names) filed or recorded in book/reel/volume No. ____ on page ____ or document/fee/file/instrument/microfilm No. ____ in the _______ (insert name of office where document was filed or recorded), and for an order, pursuant to ORS 205.460, for costs and attorney fees required to bring this action, on the grounds that the purported encumbrances have no basis in law or fact. Petitioner further requests that this court enter an order requiring Respondent to appear before this court and to show cause why the above order should not be entered. Finally, Petitioner requests an order from the court requiring Respondent to pay penalties and damages as provided in ORS 205.470.
DATED this ___ day of _______, ___.
___________________________
Petitioner or Petitioner's
Attorney
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF
THE STATE OF OREGON
FOR THE COUNTY OF _______
__________, )
Petitioner, ) Case
No. ____
)
) AFFIDAVIT
OF
V. ) _________
)
)
__________, )
Respondent. )
__________________ )
STATE OF OREGON )
) ss.
County of _______ )
I, _______ (insert name of affiant), after being duly sworn,
depose and say:
1. I am the above-entitled petitioner (or the attorney for the
petitioner) in this matter.
2. The information contained in this affidavit is of my own
personal knowledge.
3. Attached as numbered exhibits are true and correct copies of
the following documents that were filed or recorded in the _______ (insert name
of office where documents were filed or recorded) on _______ (insert date):
(List and attach document(s))
4. For any purported encumbrances identified above the
following is true. The encumbrance is not authorized by statute, was not
entered into consensually, and is not an equitable, constructive or other
encumbrance imposed by a court of competent jurisdiction.
DATED this ___ day of _______, ___.
______________________________
(Petitioner
or Petitioner's Attorney)
SUBSCRIBED AND SWORN to before me this ___ day of _______, ___.
_____________________________.
NOTARY PUBLIC FOR OREGON
My commission expires: _____
___________________________________________________________________
(4) A copy of the petition and the order directing the
encumbrance claimant to appear under this section shall be served upon the
encumbrance claimant:
(a) By service in the manner provided for personal service of
summons under ORCP 7; or
(b) By mailing a true copy of the petition, affidavit and order
to the encumbrance claimant at the encumbrance claimant's last-known address,
both by first class mail and by certified or registered mail, return receipt
requested. A notice mailed under this paragraph is effective on the date that
the notice is deposited with the United States Postal Service, properly
addressed and postage prepaid.
(5) The order to show cause shall be in substantially the
following form and shall clearly state that if the encumbrance claimant fails
to appear at the time and place noted, the claim of encumbrance shall be
stricken and released and that the encumbrance claimant shall be ordered to pay
the costs and reasonable attorney fees incurred by the petitioner at trial and
on appeal:
___________________________________________________________________
IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF
THE STATE OF OREGON
FOR THE COUNTY OF _______
_________, )
Petitioner, ) Case
No. ____
)
) ORDER
TO
v. ) SHOW
CAUSE
)
)
_________, )
Respondent. )
THIS MATTER came before the court on _______ (insert date) on
Petitioner's Petition for an Order Striking and Releasing Encumbrances,
Awarding Costs and Attorney Fees and Order to Show Cause. The court, having
considered the petition, the Affidavit of _______ (insert name) and the
attached exhibits, and it appearing to the court that there are sufficient
grounds to issue an order to show cause,
IT IS HEREBY ORDERED that the Respondent, _______ (insert
name), appear before this court on _______ (insert date), at _____ (insert
time), to show cause why the petition should not be granted in its entirety.
IMPORTANT
NOTICE:
IF YOU FAIL TO APPEAR AT THE ABOVE TIME AND PLACE, THE COURT MAY ENTER AN ORDER STRIKING AND RELEASING YOUR ENCUMBRANCE CLAIMS FILED AGAINST PETITIONER AND YOU MAY BE ORDERED TO PAY COSTS AND REASONABLE ATTORNEY FEES INCURRED BY THE PETITIONER.
DATED this ___ day of _______, ___.
________________
Circuit Court Judge
___________________________________________________________________
(6) If the court determines that the claim of encumbrance is
invalid, the court shall issue an order striking and releasing the claim of
encumbrance and may award costs and reasonable attorney fees at trial and on
appeal to the petitioner to be paid by the encumbrance claimant. If the court
determines that the claim of encumbrance is valid, the court shall issue an
order so stating and may award costs and reasonable attorney fees at trial and
on appeal to the encumbrance claimant to be paid by the petitioner.
(7) The procedure set forth in this section is not available
against a person lawfully conducting business as:
(a) An institution, a savings bank, [a stock savings bank,] a national bank, [a foreign institution,] an
out-of-state bank, a federal savings bank or an extranational institution,
as those terms are defined in ORS [706.005,
a federal savings bank] 706.008,
or a subsidiary of an entity described in this paragraph;
(b) A savings association or a federal association, as those
terms are defined in ORS 722.004, or a subsidiary of an entity described in
this paragraph;
(c) A bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company
or a subsidiary of a bank holding company or a savings and loan holding
company;
(d) A credit union, as defined in ORS 723.006, or a federal
credit union;
(e) A consumer finance company subject to the provisions of ORS
chapter 725;
(f) A mortgage banker or a mortgage broker, as those terms are
defined in ORS 59.840, a mortgage servicing company or any other mortgage
company; or
(g) An insurer as defined in ORS 731.106.
(8) The procedure set forth in this section is not available
against:
(a) An officer, agency, department or instrumentality of the
Federal Government;
(b) An officer, agency, department or instrumentality of this
state; or
(c) An officer, agency, department or instrumentality of a
political subdivision or public corporation in this state.
NOTE: Corrects
terminology and ORS reference in (7)(a).
SECTION 58.
ORS 215.750 is amended to read:
215.750. (1) In western Oregon, a governing body of a county or
its designate may allow the establishment of a single-family dwelling on a lot
or parcel located within a forest zone if the lot or parcel is predominantly
composed of soils that are:
(a) Capable of producing 0 to 49 cubic feet per acre per year
of wood fiber if:
(A) All or part of at least three other lots or parcels that
existed on January 1, 1993, are within a 160-acre square centered on the center
of the subject tract; and
(B) At least three dwellings existed on January 1, 1993, on the
other lots or parcels;
(b) Capable of producing 50 to 85 cubic feet per acre per year
of wood fiber if:
(A) All or part of at least seven other lots or parcels that
existed on January 1, 1993, are within a 160-acre square centered on the center
of the subject tract; and
(B) At least three dwellings existed on January 1, 1993, on the
other lots or parcels; or
(c) Capable of producing more than 85 cubic feet per acre per
year of wood fiber if:
(A) All or part of at least 11 other lots or parcels that
existed on January 1, 1993, are within a 160-acre square centered on the center
of the subject tract; and
(B) At least three dwellings existed on January 1, 1993, on the
other lots or parcels.
(2) In eastern Oregon, a governing body of a county or its
designate may allow the establishment of a single-family dwelling on a lot or
parcel located within a forest zone if the lot or parcel is predominantly
composed of soils that are:
(a) Capable of producing 0 to 20 cubic feet per acre per year
of wood fiber if:
(A) All or part of at least three other lots or parcels that
existed on January 1, 1993, are within a 160-acre square centered on the center
of the subject tract; and
(B) At least three dwellings existed on January 1, 1993, on the
other lots or parcels;
(b) Capable of producing 21 to 50 cubic feet per acre per year
of wood fiber if:
(A) All or part of at least seven other lots or parcels that
existed on January 1, 1993, are within a 160-acre square centered on the center
of the subject tract; and
(B) At least three dwellings existed on January 1, 1993, on the
other lots or parcels; or
(c) Capable of producing more than 50 cubic feet per acre per
year of wood fiber if:
(A) All or part of at least 11 other lots or parcels that
existed on January 1, 1993, are within a 160-acre square centered on the center
of the subject tract; and
(B) At least three dwellings existed on January 1, 1993, on the
other lots or parcels.
(3) Lots or parcels within urban growth boundaries shall not be
used to satisfy the eligibility requirements under subsection (1) or (2) of
this section.
(4) A proposed dwelling under this [subsection] section is
not allowed:
(a) If it is prohibited by or will not comply with the
requirements of an acknowledged comprehensive plan or acknowledged land use
regulations or other provisions of law.
(b) Unless it complies with the requirements of ORS 215.730.
(c) Unless no dwellings are allowed on other lots or parcels
that make up the tract and deed restrictions established under ORS 215.740 (3)
for the other lots or parcels that make up the tract are met.
(d) If the tract on which the dwelling will be sited includes a
dwelling.
(5) Except as described in subsection (6) of this section, if
the tract under subsection (1) or (2) of this section abuts a road that existed
on January 1, 1993, the measurement may be made by creating a 160-acre
rectangle that is one mile long and one-fourth mile wide centered on the center
of the subject tract and that is to the maximum extent possible, aligned with
the road.
(6)(a) If a tract 60 acres or larger described under subsection
(1) or (2) of this section abuts a road or perennial stream, the measurement
shall be made in accordance with subsection (5) of this section. However, one
of the three required dwellings shall be on the same side of the road or stream
as the tract and:
(A) Be located within a 160-acre rectangle that is one mile
long and one-fourth mile wide centered on the center of the subject tract and
that is, to the maximum extent possible, aligned with the road or stream; or
(B) Be within one-quarter mile from the edge of the subject tract
but not outside the length of the 160-acre rectangle, and on the same side of
the road or stream as the tract.
(b) If a road crosses the tract on which the dwelling will be
located, at least one of the three required dwellings shall be on the same side
of the road as the proposed dwelling.
NOTE: Corrects
internal reference in (4).
SECTION 59.
ORS 215.806 is amended to read:
215.806. (1) The State Department of Fish and Wildlife shall
adopt rules specifying the form and content of a wildlife habitat conservation
and management plan. The rules shall specify the conservation and management
practices that are appropriate to preserve, enhance and improve wildlife common
to the diverse regions of this state. Accepted farm and forest practices may be
allowed as an integral part of the wildlife conservation and management
practices specified in an approved plan.
(2) [The rules required
to be adopted by subsection (1) of this section shall be adopted no later than
180 days after November 4, 1993.] The rules shall be reviewed annually by
the department and revised when considered necessary or appropriate by the
department.
NOTE: Deletes
obsolete provision.
SECTION 60.
ORS 243.291 is amended to read:
243.291. (1) The Public Employees' Benefit Board shall make
available one or more fully insured long term care insurance plans. The plans
shall be made available to eligible employees, retired employees and family
members. Notwithstanding ORS 243.105 [and
243.230], for purposes of this subsection, "family members"
includes family members as defined by the board and also includes the parents
of the employee or retiree and the parents of the spouse of the employee or
retiree.
(2) Employees of local governments and employees of political
subdivisions may participate in the plans under terms and conditions
established by the board, if it does not jeopardize the financial viability of
the board's long term care insurance plans. However, unless the local
government or political subdivision provides otherwise, the employee's
participation is a personal action of the employee and does not obligate the
local government or political subdivision to pay for the provision of benefits
under this subsection.
(3) Participation of eligible employees or retired employees in
any long term care insurance plan made available by the board is voluntary and
is subject to reasonable underwriting guidelines and eligibility rules
established by the board.
(4) The employee or retired employee is solely responsible for
the payment of the long term care premium rates developed by the board. The
board is authorized to charge a reasonable administrative fee, in addition to
the premium charged by the long term care insurer, to cover the cost of
administration and consumer education materials.
NOTE: Deletes
reference to repealed statute in (1).
SECTION 61.
ORS 243.650 is amended to read:
243.650. As used in ORS 243.650 to 243.782, unless the context
requires otherwise:
(1) "Appropriate bargaining unit" means the unit
designated by the Employment Relations Board or voluntarily recognized by the
public employers to be appropriate for collective bargaining. However, an
appropriate bargaining unit cannot include both academically licensed and
unlicensed or nonacademically licensed school employees. Academically licensed
units may include but are not limited to teachers, nurses, counselors,
therapists, psychologists, child development specialists and similar positions.
This limitation shall not apply to any bargaining unit certified or recognized
prior to June 6, 1995, or to any school district with fewer than 50 employees.
(2) "Board" means the Employment Relations Board.
(3) "Certification" means official recognition by the
board that a labor organization is the exclusive representative for all of the
employees in the appropriate bargaining unit.
(4) "Collective bargaining" means the performance of
the mutual obligation of a public employer and the representative of its
employees to meet at reasonable times and confer in good faith with respect to
employment relations for the purpose of negotiations concerning mandatory
subjects of bargaining as defined in this section, to meet and confer in good
faith in accordance with law with respect to any dispute concerning the
interpretation or application of a collective bargaining agreement, and to
execute written contracts incorporating agreements that have been reached on
behalf of the public employer and the employees in the bargaining unit covered
by such negotiations. The obligation to meet and negotiate does not compel
either party to agree to a proposal or require the making of a concession.
Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prohibit a public employer and
a certified or recognized representative of its employees from discussing or
executing written agreements regarding matters other than mandatory subjects of
bargaining that are not prohibited by law, so long as there is mutual agreement
of the parties to discuss these matters, which are permissive subjects of
bargaining.
(5) "Compulsory arbitration" means the procedure
whereby parties involved in a labor dispute are required by law to submit their
differences to a third party for a final and binding decision.
(6) "Confidential employee" means one who assists and
acts in a confidential capacity to a person who formulates, determines and
effectuates management policies in the area of collective bargaining.
(7)(a) "Employment relations" includes, but is not
limited to, matters concerning direct or indirect monetary benefits, hours,
vacations, sick leave, grievance procedures and other conditions of employment.
(b) "Employment relations" does not include subjects
determined to be permissive, nonmandatory subjects of bargaining by the
Employment Relations Board prior to June 6, 1995.
(c) After June 6, 1995, "employment relations" shall
not include subjects which the Employment Relations Board determines to have a
greater impact on management's prerogative than on employee wages, hours, or
other terms and conditions of employment.
(d) "Employment relations" shall not include subjects
that have an insubstantial or de minimis effect on public employee wages,
hours, and other terms and conditions of employment.
(e) For school district bargaining, "employment
relations" shall expressly exclude class size, the school or educational
calendar, standards of performance or criteria for evaluation of teachers, the
school curriculum, reasonable dress, grooming and at-work personal conduct
requirements respecting smoking, gum chewing and similar matters of personal
conduct, the standards and procedures for student discipline, the time between
student classes, the selection, agendas and decisions of 21st Century Schools [Site] Councils established under ORS
329.704, and any other subject proposed that is permissive under paragraphs
(b), (c) and (d) of this subsection.
(f) For all other employee bargaining except school districts,
"employment relations" expressly excludes staffing levels and safety
issues (except those staffing levels and safety issues which have a direct and
substantial effect on the on-the-job safety of public employees), scheduling of
services provided to the public, determination of the minimum qualifications
necessary for any position, criteria for evaluation or performance appraisal, assignment
of duties, workload when the effect on duties is insubstantial, reasonable
dress, grooming, and at-work personal conduct requirements respecting smoking,
gum chewing, and similar matters of personal conduct at work, and any other
subject proposed that is permissive under paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of this
subsection.
(8) "Exclusive representative" means the labor
organization that, as a result of certification by the board or recognition by
the employer, has the right to be the collective bargaining agent of all
employees in an appropriate bargaining unit.
(9) "Fact-finding" means identification of the major
issues in a particular labor dispute by one or more impartial individuals who
review the positions of the parties, resolve factual differences and make
recommendations for settlement of the dispute.
(10) "Fair-share agreement" means an agreement
between the public employer and the recognized or certified bargaining
representative of public employees whereby employees who are not members of the
employee organization are required to make an in-lieu-of-dues payment to an
employee organization except as provided in ORS 243.666. Upon the filing with
the board of a petition by 30 percent or more of the employees in an
appropriate bargaining unit covered by such union security agreement declaring
they desire that such agreement be rescinded, the board shall take a secret
ballot of the employees in such unit and certify the results thereof to the
recognized or certified bargaining representative and to the public employer.
Unless a majority of the votes cast in an election favor such union security
agreement, the board shall certify deauthorization[,] thereof. A petition for deauthorization of a union security
agreement must be filed not more than 90 calendar days after the collective
bargaining agreement is executed. Only one such election shall be conducted in
any appropriate bargaining unit during the term of a collective bargaining
agreement between a public employer and the recognized or certified bargaining
representative.
(11) "Final offer" means the proposed contract
language and cost summary submitted to the mediator within seven days of the
declaration of impasse.
(12) "Labor dispute" means any controversy concerning
employment relations or concerning the association or representation of persons
in negotiating, fixing, maintaining, changing, or seeking to arrange terms or
conditions of employment relations, regardless of whether the disputants stand
in the proximate relation of employer and employee.
(13) "Labor organization" means any organization that
has as one of its purposes representing employees in their employment relations
with public employers.
(14) "Last best offer package" means the offer
exchanged by parties not less than 14 days prior to the date scheduled for an
interest arbitration hearing.
(15) "Legislative body" means the Legislative
Assembly, the city council, the county commission and any other board or
commission empowered to levy taxes.
(16) "Managerial employee" means an employee of the
State of Oregon who possesses authority to formulate and carry out management
decisions or who represents management's interest by taking or effectively
recommending discretionary actions that control or implement employer policy,
and who has discretion in the performance of these management responsibilities
beyond the routine discharge of duties. A "managerial employee" need
not act in a supervisory capacity in relation to other employees.
Notwithstanding this subsection, "managerial employee" shall not be
construed to include faculty members at a community college, college or
university.
(17) "Mediation" means assistance by an impartial
third party in reconciling a labor dispute between the public employer and the
exclusive representative regarding employment relations.
(18) "Payment-in-lieu-of-dues" means an assessment to
defray the cost for services by the exclusive representative in negotiations
and contract administration of all persons in an appropriate bargaining unit
who are not members of the organization serving as exclusive representative of
the employees. The payment shall be equivalent to regular union dues and
assessments, if any, or shall be an amount agreed upon by the public employer
and the exclusive representative of the employees.
(19) "Public employee" means an employee of a public
employer but does not include elected officials, persons appointed to serve on
boards or commissions, incarcerated persons working under section 41, Article I
of the Oregon Constitution, or persons who are confidential employees,
supervisory employees or managerial employees.
(20) "Public employer" means the State of Oregon, and
the following political subdivisions: Cities, counties, community colleges,
school districts, special districts, mass transit districts, metropolitan
service districts, public service corporations or municipal corporations and
public and quasi-public corporations.
(21) "Public employer representative" includes any
individual or individuals specifically designated by the public employer to act
in its interests in all matters dealing with employee representation,
collective bargaining and related issues.
(22) "Strike" means a public employee's refusal in
concerted action with others to report for duty, or his or her willful absence
from his or her position, or his or her stoppage of work, or his or her absence
in whole or in part from the full, faithful or proper performance of his or her
duties of employment, for the purpose of inducing, influencing or coercing a
change in the conditions, compensation, rights, privileges or obligations of
public employment; however, nothing shall limit or impair the right of any
public employee to lawfully express or communicate a complaint or opinion on
any matter related to the conditions of employment.
(23) "Supervisory employee" means any individual
having authority in the interest of the employer to hire, transfer, suspend,
lay off, recall, promote, discharge, assign, reward or discipline other
employees, or responsibly to direct them, or to adjust their grievances, or
effectively to recommend such action, if in connection therewith, the exercise
of such authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature but requires
the use of independent judgment. Failure to assert supervisory status in any
Employment Relations Board proceeding or in negotiations for any collective
bargaining agreement shall not thereafter prevent assertion of supervisory
status in any subsequent board proceeding or contract negotiation.
Notwithstanding the provisions of this subsection, no nurse, charge nurse or
similar nursing position shall be deemed to be supervisory unless such position
has traditionally been classified as supervisory.
(24) "Unfair labor practice" means the commission of
an act designated an unfair labor practice in ORS 243.672.
(25) "Voluntary arbitration" means the procedure
whereby parties involved in a labor dispute mutually agree to submit their
differences to a third party for a final and binding decision.
NOTE: Corrects
official title in (7)(e); corrects punctuation in (10).
SECTION 62.
ORS 244.050 is amended to read:
244.050. (1) On or before April 15 of each year the following
persons shall file with the Oregon Government Standards and Practices
Commission a verified statement of economic interest as required under this
chapter:
(a) The Governor, Secretary of State, State Treasurer, Attorney
General, Commissioner of the Bureau of Labor and Industries, Superintendent of
Public Instruction, district attorneys and members of the Legislative Assembly.
(b) Any judicial officer, including justices of the peace and
municipal judges, except municipal judges in those cities where a majority of
the votes cast in the subject city in the 1974 general election was in
opposition to the ballot measure provided for in section 10, chapter 68, Oregon
Laws 1974 (special session), and except any pro tem judicial officer who does
not otherwise serve as a judicial officer.
(c) Any candidate for an office designated in paragraph (a) or
(b) of this subsection.
(d) The Deputy Attorney General.
(e) The Legislative Administrator, the Legislative Counsel, the
Legislative Fiscal Officer, the Secretary of the Senate and the Chief Clerk of
the House of Representatives.
(f) The Chancellor and Vice Chancellors of the State System of
Higher Education and the President and Vice Presidents, or their administrative
equivalents, in each institution under the jurisdiction of the State Board of
Higher Education.
(g) The following state officers:
(A) Adjutant General.
(B) Director of Agriculture.
(C) Manager of State Accident Insurance Fund Corporation.
(D) Water Resources Director.
(E) Director of Department of Environmental Quality.
(F) Director of Oregon Department of Administrative Services.
(G) Director of the Oregon State Fair and Exposition Center.
(H) State Fish and Wildlife Director.
(I) State Forester.
(J) State Geologist.
(K) Director of Department of Human Resources.
(L) Director of the Department of Consumer and Business
Services.
(M) Director of Division of State Lands.
(N) State Librarian.
(O) Administrator of Oregon Liquor Control Commission.
(P) Superintendent of State Police.
(Q) Director of the
Public Employees Retirement [Board] System.
(R) Director of Department of Revenue.
(S) Director of Transportation.
(T) Public Utility Commissioner.
(U) Director of Veterans' Affairs.
(V) Executive Director of Oregon Government Standards and
Practices Commission.
(W) Administrator of the Office of Energy.
(X) Director and each assistant director of the Oregon State
Lottery.
(h) Any assistant in the Governor's office other than personal
secretaries and clerical personnel.
(i) Every elected city or county official except elected
officials in those cities or counties where a majority of votes cast in the
subject city or county in any election on the issue of filing statements of
economic interest under this chapter was in opposition.
(j) Every member of a city or county planning, zoning or
development commission except such members in those cities or counties where a
majority of votes cast in the subject city or county at any election on the
issue of filing statements of economic interest under this chapter was in
opposition to the ballot measure provided for in section 10, chapter 68, Oregon
Laws 1974 (special session).
(k) The chief executive officer of a city or county who
performs the duties of manager or principal administrator of the city or county
except such employees in those cities or counties where a majority of votes
cast in the subject city or county in an election on the issue of filing
statements of economic interest under this chapter was in opposition.
(L) Members of local government boundary commissions formed
under ORS 199.410 to 199.519.
(m) Every member of a governing body of a metropolitan service
district and the executive officer thereof.
(n) Each member of the board of directors of the State Accident
Insurance Fund Corporation.
(o) The chief administrative officer and the financial officer
of each common and union high school district, education service district and
community college district.
(p) Every member of the following state boards and commissions:
(A) Capitol Planning Commission.
(B) Board of Geologic and Mineral Industries.
(C) Oregon Economic Development Commission.
(D) State Board of Education.
(E) Environmental Quality Commission.
(F) Fish and Wildlife Commission of the State of Oregon.
(G) State Board of Forestry.
(H) Oregon Government Standards and Practices Commission.
(I) Oregon Health Council.
(J) State Board of Higher Education.
(K) Oregon Investment Council.
(L) Land Conservation and Development Commission.
(M) Oregon Liquor Control Commission.
(N) Oregon Short Term Fund Board.
(O) State Marine Board.
(P) Mass transit district boards.
(Q) Energy Facility Siting Council.
(R) Board of Commissioners of the Port of Portland.
(S) Employment Relations Board.
(T) Public Employees Retirement Board.
(U) Oregon Racing Commission.
(V) Oregon Transportation Commission.
(W) Wage and Hour Commission.
(X) Water Resources Commission.
(Y) Workers' Compensation Board.
(Z) Housing, Educational and Cultural Facilities Authority.
(AA) Oregon State Lottery Commission.
(BB) Pacific Northwest Electric Power and Conservation Planning
Council.
(CC) Columbia River Gorge Commission.
(q) The following officers of the State Treasury:
(A) Chief Deputy State Treasurer.
(B) Executive Assistant to the State Treasurer.
(C) Director of the Investment Division.
(2) By April 15 next after the date an appointment takes
effect, every appointed public official on a board or commission listed in
subsection (1) of this section shall file with the commission a statement of
economic interest as required under ORS 244.060, 244.070 and 244.090.
(3) By April 15 next after the filing date for the biennial
primary election, each candidate for elective public office described in
subsection (1) of this section shall file with the commission a statement of
economic interest as required under ORS 244.060, 244.070 and 244.090.
(4) Within 30 days after the filing date for the general
election, each candidate for elective public office described in subsection (1)
of this section who was not a candidate in the preceding biennial primary
election shall file with the commission a statement of economic interest as
required under ORS 244.060, 244.070 and 244.090.
(5) The Legislative Assembly shall maintain a continuing review
of the operation of this chapter and from time to time may add to or delete
from the list of boards and commissions in subsections (1) to (3) of this
section as in the judgment of the Legislative Assembly is consistent with the
purposes of this chapter.
(6) Subsections (1) to (5) of this section apply only to
persons who are incumbent, elected or appointed officials as of April 15 and to
persons who are candidates for office on April 15. Those sections also apply to
persons who do not become candidates until 30 days after the filing date for
the statewide general election.
(7)(a) Failure to file the statement required by this section
subjects a person to a civil penalty that may be imposed as specified in ORS
183.090, but the enforcement of this subsection does not require the Oregon
Government Standards and Practices Commission to follow the procedures in ORS
244.260 before finding that a violation of this section has occurred.
(b) Failure to file the required statement in timely fashion
shall be prima facie evidence of a violation of this section.
(c) If within five days after the date on which the statement
is to be filed under this section the statement has not been received by the
commission, the commission shall notify the public official and give the public
official not less than 15 days to comply with the requirements of this section.
If the public official fails to comply by the date set by the commission, the
commission may impose a civil penalty of $5 for each day the statement is late
beyond the date fixed by the commission. The maximum penalty that may be
accrued under this section is $1,000.
(d) A civil penalty imposed under this subsection is in
addition to and not in lieu of sanctions that may be imposed under ORS 244.380.
NOTE: Corrects
official title in (1)(g)(Q).
SECTION 63.
ORS 247.296 is amended to read:
247.296. (1) The county clerk shall use records of the United
States Postal Service relating to ballots issued by mail to verify the accuracy
of addresses of electors contained in the registration file of the county
clerk.
(2) Based on information obtained under subsection (1) of this
section, the county clerk shall automatically update the registration of an
elector under ORS 247.292 or mail a notice described in ORS 247.563.
(3) The registration of an elector shall not be canceled or
moved to an inactive file during the 90-day period prior to any biennial or presidential preference
primary or general election based on information obtained under this section.
NOTE: Clarifies
reference to election in (3).
SECTION 64.
ORS 254.056 is amended to read:
254.056. (1) The general election shall be held on the first
Tuesday after the first Monday in November of each even-numbered year. At the
general election officers of the state and subdivisions of the state, members
of Congress and electors of President and Vice President of the United States
as are to be elected in that year shall be elected.
(2) The biennial primary election shall be held on the third
Tuesday in May of each even-numbered year. At the biennial primary election precinct committeepersons shall be
elected and major political party candidates other than candidates for
President of the United States shall be nominated for offices to be filled at
the general election held in that year.
(3) The presidential preference primary election shall be held
on the second Tuesday in March of each year in which electors of the President
and Vice President of the United States are to be elected. At the presidential
preference primary election, electors may vote for candidates for nomination
for President of the United States.
NOTE: Clarifies
reference to election in (2).
SECTION 65.
ORS 254.085 is amended to read:
254.085. (1) The Secretary of State, not later than the 61st
day before the date of a biennial primary or general election, shall file with
each county clerk a statement of the state and congressional district offices
to be filled or for which candidates are to be nominated in the county at the
election, information concerning all candidates for the offices, and the state
measures to be voted on.
(2) The information concerning candidates for the Supreme
Court, Court of Appeals, Oregon Tax Court and circuit court shall include a
designation of incumbent for each candidate who is the regularly elected or
appointed judge of the court to which the candidate seeks election. If a candidate
was regularly elected or appointed to a specific position or department on the
court, the candidate shall be designated as the incumbent only if the person is
a candidate for that position or department.
(3) Included with each state measure shall be the measure
number, the ballot title prepared by the Attorney General under ORS [250.065 (3)] 250.067 (2) or, if the Supreme Court has reviewed the title under
ORS 250.085, the title certified by the court and the financial estimates under
ORS 250.125. The Secretary of State shall keep a copy of the statement.
NOTE: Corrects ORS
reference in (3).
SECTION 66.
ORS 260.178 is amended to read:
260.178. As used in ORS 260.178, 260.180, 260.182, 260.188,
260.265 and 260.997:
(1)(a) "Attributable expenditure" means an
expenditure from contributions, including any loans received, including
accounts payable, made or authorized:
(A) By the candidate or by a person acting for the candidate;
(B) For the treasurer of the candidate or the candidate's
principal campaign committee; or
(C) For another person or political committee under the
direction or control of the candidate or the treasurer of the candidate or the
candidate's principal campaign committee.
(b) "Attributable expenditure" does not include an
expenditure that is a repayment on a loan or an independent expenditure.
(2) "Secretary" means the Secretary of State.
(3) "Statewide office" means the office of Governor,
Secretary of State, State Treasurer, Attorney General, Superintendent of Public
Instruction and Commissioner of the Bureau of Labor and Industries.
(4) "With respect to the biennial primary election" means the period beginning on the
date that the name of a treasurer is certified to the filing officer under ORS
260.035 or 260.037 or the day following the last day of the accounting period
for a previous statement of contributions received or expenditures made if the
statement shows an unexpended balance of contributions or an expenditure
deficit, and ending on the 20th day after the date of the biennial primary election.
(5) "With respect to the general election" means:
(a) For a candidate nominated by a major political party at the
biennial primary election, the
period extending from the 21st day after the biennial primary election to December 31; or
(b) For a candidate not nominated at the biennial primary election, the period extending from the date the
name of a treasurer for the candidate or the principal campaign committee of
the candidate is certified to the filing officer and ending on December 31.
NOTE: Clarifies
references to election in (4) and (5).
SECTION 67.
ORS 260.180 is amended to read:
260.180. (1) A candidate for statewide office or the office of
state Senator or state Representative may file a declaration of limitation on
expenditures as described in ORS 260.182 with the secretary stating that the
candidate, including the principal campaign committee of the candidate, will
not make attributable expenditures:
(a) With respect to the biennial
primary election, in excess of:
(A) $500,000 for the office of Governor;
(B) $200,000 for any other statewide office;
(C) $30,000 for the office of state Senator; and
(D) $20,000 for the office of state Representative.
(b) With respect to the general election, in excess of:
(A) $1 million for the office of Governor;
(B) $400,000 for any other statewide office;
(C) $60,000 for the office of state Senator; and
(D) $40,000 for the office of state Representative.
(2) For purposes of this section, attributable expenditures
made prior to the applicable biennial
primary or general election reporting period in consideration for goods to be
delivered or services to be rendered solely during the biennial primary or general election reporting period shall be
charged against the expenditure limits described in subsection (1) of this
section in the reporting period during which the goods or services are
delivered.
(3) A candidate described in subsection (1) of this section who
has filed a declaration under this section stating that the candidate will not
make attributable expenditures with respect to the biennial primary or general election in excess of the limits
described in subsection (1) of this section shall not be bound by the
declaration if any opposing candidate for the same nomination or office at the
same election has not filed a declaration indicating that the candidate will
limit expenditures or has filed the statement but has made expenditures
exceeding the applicable limit.
NOTE: Clarifies
references to election in (1)(a), (2) and (3).
SECTION 68.
ORS 260.182 is amended to read:
260.182. (1) The declaration of limitation on expenditures
filed under ORS 260.180 shall certify that with respect to the biennial primary or general election,
the candidate and the principal campaign committee of the candidate will not
incur attributable expenditures in excess of the applicable expenditure limit
described in ORS 260.180.
(2) The secretary shall prescribe forms for the filing of the
information required by this section. The forms shall also include:
(a) The name of the candidate by which the candidate is
commonly known and by which the candidate transacts important private or
official business.
(b) The mailing address of the residence of the candidate.
(c) The signature of the candidate.
(3) The declaration shall be filed with the secretary:
(a) For the biennial
primary election, not later than the date the candidate files a declaration of
candidacy or a nominating petition; and
(b) For the general election:
(A) In the case of a candidate nominated by a major political
party at the biennial primary
election, not later than 40 days after the biennial
primary election; or
(B) In the case of a candidate not nominated at the biennial primary election, at the same
time that a certificate of nomination is filed.
NOTE: Clarifies
references to election in (1) and (3).
SECTION 69.
ORS 260.184 is amended to read:
260.184. (1) The Secretary of State shall include with the
voters' pamphlet statement of each candidate described in ORS 260.180 for the biennial primary and general elections
a statement indicating whether or not the candidate has agreed to limit
expenditures under ORS 260.180.
(2) If a candidate described in ORS 260.180 has agreed to limit
expenditures, but is not bound by the agreement because an opponent of the
candidate for the same nomination or office at the same election has not agreed
to limit expenditures or has exceeded the applicable expenditure limit, the
statement shall indicate that the candidate has agreed to limit expenditures
and that the candidate is not bound by the agreement because an opponent of the
candidate for the same nomination or office at the same election has not agreed
to limit expenditures or has exceeded the applicable spending limit.
(3) If the Secretary of State or the Attorney General finds
under ORS 260.265 that a candidate described in ORS 260.180 filing a
declaration of limitation on expenditures under ORS 260.180 has exceeded the
applicable expenditure limit, at the next biennial
primary and general elections at which the candidate is a candidate for
nomination or election to an office for which a portrait or statement is
included in the voters' pamphlet, the Secretary of State shall include with the
portrait and information required under ORS 251.075 and 251.085 a statement in
boldfaced type indicating that the candidate violated a previous declaration of
limitation on expenditures under ORS 260.180. The statement required by this
subsection shall identify the date of the election at which the candidate
exceeded the applicable expenditure limit.
NOTE: Clarifies
references to election in (1) and (3).
SECTION 70.
ORS 260.265 is amended to read:
260.265. (1) With respect to the biennial primary and general elections, the secretary shall examine
each contribution and expenditure statement of each candidate who filed a
declaration of limitation on expenditures under ORS 260.180 to determine
whether any candidate exceeded the applicable expenditure limit. If the
secretary determines after any filing that a candidate has exceeded the
applicable expenditure limit, the secretary shall send a notice of the
secretary's determination to the candidate. If the secretary determines that
the secretary or any candidate for nomination or election to an office for
which the secretary is also a candidate for nomination or election has exceeded
the applicable expenditure limit, the information shall be sent to the Attorney
General, who shall be substituted for the secretary in any enforcement
proceeding under this section and ORS 260.997. The notice also shall state that
the candidate may appeal the secretary's or the Attorney General's
determination as provided in this section.
(2) A hearing to contest the determination that a candidate has
violated the declaration of limitation on expenditures as described in
subsection (1) of this section and to consider circumstances in mitigation
shall be held by the secretary or the Attorney General:
(a) Upon request of the candidate, if the request is made not
later than the seventh day after the candidate received the notice sent under
subsection (1) of this section; or
(b) Upon the secretary's or the Attorney General's own motion.
(3) A hearing under subsection (2) of this section shall be
conducted, and the secretary's or the Attorney General's order may be appealed,
in the manner provided for a contested case under ORS 183.310 to 183.550.
(4) The candidate need not appear in person at a hearing held
under this section, but instead may submit written testimony and other evidence,
subject to the penalty for false swearing, to the secretary for entry in the
hearing record. Such documents must be received by the secretary not later than
five business days before the day of the hearing.
NOTE: Clarifies
reference to election in (1).
SECTION 71.
ORS 274.825 is amended to read:
274.825. The State of Oregon reserves the right to permit
reasonable nonconflicting uses, [(]including seismic surveys but
excluding core hole drilling, on
lands under lease[) so] as long as:
(1) Such uses do not unreasonably impair or interfere with
operations of the lessee[,]; and
(2) Requirement is made that the permittee indemnify the lessee
against any damage caused by such use.
NOTE: Restructures
punctuation for clarity and conformance to legislative form and style; corrects
syntax.
SECTION 72.
ORS 279.015 is amended to read:
279.015. (1) Subject to the policies and provisions of ORS
279.005 and 279.007, all public contracts shall be based upon competitive bids
or proposals except:
(a) Contracts made with other public agencies or the Federal
Government[;].
(b) Contracts made with qualified nonprofit agencies providing
employment opportunities for disabled individuals[;].
(c) A public contract exempt under subsection (2) of this
section[;].
(d) A contract for products, services or supplies if the value
of the contract is less than $5,000[;].
(e) Insurance and service contracts as provided for under ORS
414.115, 414.125, 414.135 and 414.145[;].
(f) Contracts for repair, maintenance, improvement or
protection of property obtained by the Director of Veterans' Affairs under ORS
407.135 and 407.145 (1)[;].
(g)[(A)] Contracts
between public agencies utilizing an existing solicitation or current
requirement contract of one of the public agencies that is party to the
contract for which:
[(i)] (A) The original contract met the
requirements of this chapter;
[(ii)] (B) The contract allows other public
agency usage of the contract; and
[(iii)] (C) The original contracting public
agency concurs.
[(B) No written agreement
under ORS chapter 190 is necessary under this paragraph if the arrangement is
between or among units of local government; and]
(h)[(A)] If a project
is competitively bid and all responsive bids from responsible bidders exceed
the public agency's cost estimate, the public agency, in accordance with rules
adopted by the public agency, may negotiate with the lowest responsive,
responsible bidder, prior to awarding the contract, in order to solicit value
engineering and other options to attempt to bring the project within the
agency's cost estimate.
[(B)] A negotiation
with the lowest responsive, responsible bidder pursuant to this paragraph shall
not result in the award of the contract to that bidder if the scope of the
project is significantly changed from the original bid proposal.
[(C)] Notwithstanding
any other provision of law, the records of a bidder used in contract
negotiation pursuant to this paragraph are not subject to public inspection
until after the negotiated contract has been awarded or the negotiation process
has been terminated.
(2) Subject to subsection (6)(b) of this section, the Director
of the Oregon Department of Administrative Services or a local contract review
board may exempt certain public contracts or classes of public contracts from
the competitive bidding requirements of subsection (1) of this section upon
approval of the following findings submitted by the public contracting agency
seeking the exemption:
(a) It is unlikely that such exemption will encourage favoritism
in the awarding of public contracts or substantially diminish competition for
public contracts; and
(b) The awarding of public contracts pursuant to the exemption
will result in substantial cost savings to the public contracting agency. In
making such finding, the director or board may consider the type, cost, amount
of the contract, number of persons available to bid and such other factors as
may be deemed appropriate.
(3)(a) Before final adoption of the findings required by
subsection (2) of this section exempting a contract for a public improvement
from the requirement of competitive bidding, a public agency shall hold a
public hearing.
(b) Notification of the public hearing shall be published in at
least one trade newspaper of general statewide circulation a minimum of 14 days
prior to the hearing.
(c) The notice shall state that the public hearing is for the
purpose of taking comments on the agency's draft findings for an exemption from
the competitive bidding requirement. At the time of the notice, copies of the
draft findings shall be made available to the public. At the option of the
public agency, the notice may describe the process by which the findings are
finally adopted and may indicate the opportunity for any further public comment.
(d) At the public hearing, the public agency shall offer an
opportunity for any interested party to appear and present comment.
(e) If a public agency is required to act promptly due to
circumstances beyond its control that do not constitute an emergency,
notification of the public hearing can be published simultaneously with the
agency's solicitation of contractors for the alternative public contracting
method, as long as responses to the solicitation are due at least five days
after the meeting and approval of the findings.
(4) A public contract also may be exempted from the
requirements of subsection (1) of this section if:
(a) Emergency conditions require prompt execution of the
contract; or
(b) In case of sale of surplus property by a public agency, the
number, value and nature of the items to be sold make it probable that the cost
of conducting a sale by competitive bidding will be such that a liquidation
sale will result in substantially greater net revenue to the public agency.
(5) The director or board shall adopt rules allowing the
governing body of a public agency and the officer of a public agency for
contracts under $50,000 to declare that an emergency exists and establishing
procedures for determining when the conditions in subsection (4)(a) of this
section are present. The rules shall prescribe that if an emergency is
declared, any contract awarded under this subsection and subsection (4)(a) of
this section must be awarded within 60 days following declaration of the
emergency, unless the director or board grants an extension.
(6) In granting exemptions pursuant to subsection (2)(a) and
(b) of this section, the director or board shall:
(a) Where appropriate, direct the use of alternate contracting
and purchasing practices that take account of market realities and modern or
innovative contracting and purchasing methods, which are also consistent with
the public policy of encouraging competition.
(b) Require and approve or disapprove written findings by the
public contracting agency that support the awarding of a particular public
contract or a class of public contracts, without the competitive requirements
of subsection (1) of this section. The findings must show that the exemption of
a contract or class of contracts complies with the requirements of subsection
(2)(a) and (b) of this section.
(7) No written agreement
under ORS chapter 190 is necessary under subsection (1)(g) of this section if
the arrangement is between or among units of local government.
NOTE: Restructures
(1) for clarity and conformance to legislative form and style; corrects syntax.
SECTION 73.
ORS 279.057 is amended to read:
279.057. (1) A contract entered into by a public agency for the
consulting services of registered professional engineers, registered architects
or registered professional land surveyors is a personal service contract.
(2) A public agency shall select consultants described in
subsection (1) of this section on the basis of qualifications for the type of
professional service required. A public agency may solicit or use pricing
policies and proposals or other pricing information to determine consultant
compensation only after the public agency has selected a candidate under
subsection (3) of this section.
(3) Subject to the requirements of subsection (2) of this
section, the procedures that a public agency creates for the screening and
selection of consultants and the selection of a candidate under this section
shall be within the sole discretion of the public agency and may be adjusted to
accommodate the public agency's scope, schedule and budget objectives for a
particular project. Adjustments to accommodate an agency's objectives may
include provision for the direct appointment of a consultant if the value of
the project does not exceed a threshold amount as determined by the agency.
Screening and selection procedures may include a consideration of each
candidate's:
(a) Specialized experience, capabilities and technical
competence that may be demonstrated by the proposed approach and methodology to
meet the project requirements;
(b) Resources available to perform the work, including any
specialized services, within the applicable time limits;
(c) Record of past performance, including but not limited to
price and cost data from previous projects, quality of work, ability to meet
schedules, cost control and contract administration;
(d) Ownership status and employment practices regarding women,
minorities and emerging small businesses or historically underutilized
businesses;
(e) Availability to the project locale;
(f) Familiarity with the project locale; and
(g) Proposed project management techniques.
(4) The public agency and the selected candidate shall mutually
discuss and refine the scope of services for the project and shall negotiate
conditions, including but not limited to compensation level and performance
schedule, based on the scope of services. The compensation level paid must be
reasonable and fair to the public agency as determined solely by the public
agency. Authority to negotiate a contract under this section does not supersede
any provision of ORS 279.316[,] or 279.712 [or 291.021].
(5) If the public agency and the selected candidate are unable
for any reason to negotiate a contract at a compensation level that is
reasonable and fair to the public agency, the public agency shall, either
orally or in writing, formally terminate negotiations with the selected
candidate. The public agency may then negotiate with another candidate. The
negotiation process may continue in this manner through successive candidates
until an agreement is reached or the agency terminates the consultant
contracting process.
(6) Notwithstanding ORS 279.011, this section applies only if
the public agency personal service contract is issued by an agency of the State
of Oregon and not by an agency of any political subdivision thereof or any
public body created by intergovernmental agreement.
NOTE: Deletes
reference to repealed statute in (4).
SECTION 74. Notwithstanding any other provision of law,
ORS 285A.325 shall not be considered to have been added to or made a part of
ORS chapter 307 for the purpose of statutory compilation or for the application
of definitions, penalties or administrative provisions applicable to statute
sections in that chapter.
NOTE: Removes
section from inappropriate series.
SECTION 75.
ORS 291.445 is amended to read:
291.445. (1) Before July 1 of each fiscal year, the Oregon
Department of Administrative Services shall request from the appropriate state
agency a certificate as prescribed in this section. The request shall be made
by letter to the agency.
(2) Each state agency authorized to issue general obligation
bonds that are ordinarily to be repaid from other than General Fund
appropriations shall, on or before August 15 of each fiscal year:
(a) Certify to the Director of the Oregon Department of
Administrative Services that the amounts available or that will become
available during the current year to the bond program debt service fund to pay
bond principal and interest that has accrued or will accrue during the current
year are sufficient and will be sufficient to pay bond program principal and
interest scheduled for payment during the current year; or
(b) Certify to the Director of the Oregon Department of
Administrative Services that the amounts available or that will become
available during the current year to the bond program debt service fund will
not be sufficient to pay bond program principal and interest scheduled for
payment during the current year. A certificate issued under this paragraph
shall specify the amount of the anticipated current year deficit. The Director
of the Oregon Department of Administrative Services shall review and confirm
the correctness of each certification made under this paragraph.
(3) On or before August 15 of each fiscal year, the Accounting
Division of the Oregon Department of Administrative Services, for each general
obligation bond program in which the bond principal and interest is ordinarily
to be repaid from General Fund appropriations shall:
(a) Certify to the Director of the Oregon Department of
Administrative Services that the amounts available or that will become
available during the current year from General Fund appropriations to defray
program bond principal and interest that has accrued or will accrue during the
current year are sufficient and will be sufficient to pay program bond
principal and interest scheduled for payment during the current year; or
(b) Certify to the Director of the Oregon Department of
Administrative Services that the amounts available or that will become
available during the current year from General Fund appropriations will not be
sufficient to pay program bond principal and interest scheduled for payment
during the current year. A certificate issued under this paragraph shall
specify the amount of the anticipated current year deficit.
(4)(a) If a deficit in funds available to pay principal and
interest in any general obligation bond program is certified and confirmed
under subsection (2) or certified under subsection (3) of this section, the
amount of the deficit, together with any deficit that is certified for any
other general obligation bond program shall upon certification constitute a
state tax levy on property that shall be apportioned among and charged to the
several counties in that proportion which the total assessed value of all the
taxable property in each county bears to the total assessed value of all the
taxable property of the state as equalized.
(b) If any agency fails to make the certification under
subsection (2) or (3) of this section with respect to any general obligation
bond fund program, the Oregon Department of Administrative Services shall
determine the amount of revenue and other funds that are available and the
amount of taxes, if any, that should be levied in addition to the revenues and
funds, to pay bond principal and interest under the program for the fiscal year
in question. The additional amount so determined shall thereupon constitute a
state tax levy on property that shall be apportioned, certified, collected and
distributed as if determined and certified as a deficit by the agency. The
Oregon Department of Administrative Services shall charge the agency for cost
recovery for time spent on that agency's behalf.
(5) Immediately after the department has determined the amount
of a state tax levy on property in accordance with subsection (4) of this
section, a certificate of levy, signed by the director of the department, shall
be filed in the office of the department. If no state levy is required for the
fiscal or tax year, a certificate so stating and signed by the director shall
be filed in the office of the department.
(6) If, for any reason, after the close of any regular biennial
session of the Legislative Assembly, it becomes necessary to reduce General
Fund appropriations, General Fund appropriations for a debt service fund of a
general obligation bond program described under subsection (3) of this section
shall not be reduced.
(7) For purposes of this section:
(a) State agencies that are authorized to issue general
obligation bonds ordinarily to be repaid from other than General Fund
appropriations include but are not limited to:
(A) The Department of Veterans' Affairs, as authorized by
Article XI-A of the Oregon Constitution and ORS chapter 407 ([veteran] veterans loans).
(B) The State Board of Higher Education, as authorized by
Article XI-F(1) of the Oregon Constitution and ORS 351.350 (building projects).
(C) The Department of Environmental Quality, as authorized by
Article XI-H of the Oregon Constitution and ORS 468.195 to 468.260 (pollution
control).
(D) The Water Resources Commission and the Water Resources
Director, as authorized by Article XI-I(1) of the Oregon Constitution and ORS
541.700 to 541.855 (water development).
(E) The Housing Agency, as authorized by Article XI-I(2) of the
Oregon Constitution and ORS 456.515 to 456.725 and 458.505 to 458.515
(housing).
(F) The administrator of the Office of Energy, as authorized by
Article XI-J of the Oregon Constitution and ORS 470.220 to 470.290 (small scale
energy projects).
(G) Other agencies as required by the Oregon Department of
Administrative Services by rule adopted using the criterion of this subsection.
(b) Each agency authorized to issue general obligation bonds
that are ordinarily to be repaid from other than General Fund appropriations
shall determine the amount of revenues or other funds that are available and
the amount of taxes, if any, that should be levied for the ensuing year in the
manner required under rules adopted by the Oregon Department of Administrative
Services and make the certification required under subsection (2) of this
section.
(8)(a) State agencies that are authorized to issue general
obligation bonds that are ordinarily to be repaid from General Fund
appropriations include but are not limited to:
(A) The State Board of Forestry and the State Forester, as
authorized by Article XI-E of the Oregon Constitution and ORS 530.210 to
530.280 (state reforestation).
(B) The State Board of Higher Education, as authorized by
Article XI-G of the Oregon Constitution and ORS 351.345 (higher education and
community colleges).
(C) Other agencies as required by the Oregon Department of
Administrative Services by rule adopted using the criterion of this subsection.
(b) Each agency authorized to issue general obligation bonds
ordinarily to be repaid from General Fund appropriations shall furnish any data
required by the Oregon Department of Administrative Services to determine the
amount of revenues or other funds that are available and the amount of taxes,
if any, that should be levied for the ensuing year and the Accounting Division
of the Oregon Department of Administrative Services shall make the
determination for purposes of the making of the certification required under
subsection (3) of this section.
NOTE: Corrects
terminology in (7)(a)(A).
SECTION 76.
ORS 293.495 is amended to read:
293.495. (1) Payment authorized by ORS 293.490 may be made only
upon receipt by the State Treasurer or other state officer authorized to
disburse moneys due the decedent of an affidavit from one of the survivors in a
group of survivors listed in ORS 293.490 (3), that:
(a) The decedent died testate or intestate, as the case may be.
(b) The estate of the decedent will not be probated.
(c) The aggregate sums due the decedent from the State of
Oregon, except for salary or wages, do not exceed the principal sum of [$1,000] $10,000.
(d) The relationship of the claimants to the decedent is
described in ORS 293.490 (3), specifying the particular relationship of each
claimant; that there is no other survivor in the group that includes the
claimants; and that there is no survivor in any group preceding the group that
includes the claimants as listed in ORS 293.490 (3).
(e) The expenses of last illness and funeral of the decedent
will be paid out of the moneys so paid by the State Treasurer or other
disbursing officer, to the full amount thereof, if necessary.
(2) The State Treasurer or other officer making disbursement
shall be under no obligation to determine the truth of the affidavit. The
payment of the amount due such decedent, made in good faith to the claimants,
shall constitute a full acquittance and release of the State Treasurer or other
disbursing officer for the amount so paid.
(3) In the event that a warrant, check or order has been lost,
stolen or destroyed, the proper survivors, as specified in ORS 293.490, may
obtain payment of the amount thereof by filing with the State Treasurer or
other disbursing officer a written statement in accordance with ORS 293.475.
NOTE: Conforms sum
in (1)(c) with requirement in 293.490 (1).
SECTION 77.
ORS 293.835 is amended to read:
293.835. As used in ORS 293.830 to 293.870:
(1) "Business arrangements" means projects, ventures,
undertakings, contractual relations or other efforts requiring ongoing or
periodic performance by either or both parties.
(2) "Business entity" means any organization, firm,
association, corporation, partnership or venture, or its subsidiary or
affiliate, which exists for profit-making purposes or otherwise to secure
economic advantage.
(3) "Business operations" means the maintenance of
equipment, facilities, personnel or any other apparatus of business or
commerce, including the ownership or possession of real or personal property
located in South Africa.
(4) "Directly investing" means owning 10 percent or
more of one or more business entities in South Africa, as identified by the
Investor Responsibility Research Center.
(5) "Investment" or "invest" means the
commitment of funds or other assets to a business entity, including a loan or
other extension of credit made to that entity, or security given for the other
assets to that business entity, or the beneficial ownership or control of a
share or interest in that business entity, or of a bond or other debt
instrument issued by that business entity.
(6) "South Africa" means the Republic of South
Africa, any territory under the administration, legal or illegal, of South
Africa and the "Bantustans" or "homelands."
(7) "State moneys" means all moneys, bonds and
securities in possession of or collected by any state agency.
(8) "State trust fund" means any investment fund that
is held in trust by this state.
(9) "Strategic products or services" means articles
designated as arms, ammunition and implements of war, as defined in [the United States Code of Federal
Regulations] 22 C.F.R. part 121,
and data processing equipment and computers sold for military or police use in
the Republic of South Africa.
(10) "Subject investment funds" means:
(a) The Public Employees Retirement Fund described in ORS
238.660;
(b) The Industrial Accident Fund described in ORS 656.632;
(c) The Common School Fund;
(d) The Oregon War Veterans' Fund;
(e) Investment funds of the State Board of Higher Education
lawfully available for investments or reinvestments by the Oregon Investment
Council or State Treasurer; or
(f) Any funds in the custody of the Oregon Investment Council
or State Treasurer that are not required to meet short-term demands.
NOTE: Corrects
C.F.R. citation form in (9).
SECTION 78.
ORS 315.259 is amended to read:
315.259. (1) The tax credits provided under this section may be
referred to as the First Break Program.
(2) As used in this section:
(a) "Certificate" means a certificate issued by a
community-based organization under subsection (6) of this section that
certifies an individual as a qualified youth.
(b) "Community-based organization" means an
organization designated by the Employment Department by rule as an organization
authorized to certify individuals as qualified youths for purposes of this
section, including all local commissions [for]
on children and families and the
Youth Employment and Empowerment Coalition.
(c) "Employer" means an employer subject to taxation
under ORS chapter 316, 317 or 318.
(d) "Hiring date" means the date on which the
individual begins work for the first employer after becoming a qualified youth.
(e) "Qualified youth" or "qualified youth
employee" means an individual who is 14 to 17 years of age on the hiring
date and who has received a certificate pursuant to subsection (6) of this
section from a community-based organization identifying the youth as eligible
to participate in the First Break Program because the youth is gang-involved or
gang-affected, or at risk of becoming gang-involved or gang-affected, according
to rules adopted by the Employment Department.
(f) "Sustained employment" means employment:
(A) Of at least six months during the 12-month period following
the hiring date; and
(B) By three or fewer employers during the 12-month period
following the hiring date.
(g) "Training" means any type of vocational, academic
or rehabilitative training provided by an employer, or furnished at the expense
of an employer, to a qualified youth employee after 12 months of continuous
employment by the employer, and may be further defined by the Employment
Department by rule.
(3)(a) A credit against the taxes otherwise due under ORS
chapter 316 (or, if the taxpayer is a corporation that is an employer, under
ORS chapter 317 or 318) is allowed to a resident employer, based upon wages
actually paid by the employer to a qualified youth employee.
(b) The credit allowed under this subsection shall be allowed
for the tax year in which ends the 12-month period following the hiring date of
the qualified youth employee. Nothing in this paragraph shall be interpreted to
require the employer to employ the qualified youth for the entire 12-month
period in order to be eligible for the credit under this subsection.
(4)(a) An additional credit against the taxes otherwise due
under ORS chapter 316 (or, if the taxpayer is a corporation that is an
employer, under ORS chapter 317 or 318) is allowed to a resident employer,
based upon wages actually paid by the employer to a qualified youth employee,
if all of the following apply:
(A) The employer has applied the credit provided under
subsection (3) of this section against taxes imposed for the tax year
immediately preceding the current tax year.
(B) The qualified youth employee was continuously employed by
the employer for at least 18 months after the hiring date.
(C) Either:
(i) The community-based organization issues a statement to the
employer that the qualified youth employee was enrolled in a regularly
scheduled academic or vocational program for at least six months during the
period for which a credit under this subsection is sought; or
(ii) The employer:
(I) Incurred at least $400 in expenses providing training to
the qualified youth employee; or
(II) Directly provided at least 80 hours of training to the
qualified youth employee.
(b) The credit allowed under this subsection shall be allowed
for the tax year in which ends the 24-month period following the hiring date of
the qualified youth employee. Nothing in this paragraph shall be interpreted to
require the employer to employ the qualified youth for the entire 24-month
period in order to be eligible for the credit under this subsection.
(5) The amount of the credit provided under subsection (3) or
(4) of this section shall be equal to the lesser of:
(a) $1,000;
(b) The amount of credit provided for in paragraph (a) of this
subsection that has not already been taken into account by a previous employer
of the qualified youth employee; or
(c) 50 percent of the wages paid to the qualified youth
employee during:
(A) In the case of a credit under subsection (3) of this
section, the 12-month period following the qualified youth employee's hiring
date; or
(B) In the case of a credit under subsection (4) of this
section, the final 12 months of the 24-month period following the qualified
youth employee's hiring date.
(6)(a) The Employment Department shall authorize each
community-based organization to issue only a fixed number of certificates, the
amount to be determined by the Employment Department, but not to exceed 1,500
certificates.
(b) Each certificate is valid only for a two-year period from
the date it is issued to a qualified youth by a community-based organization.
(c) A community-based organization shall track the use of each
certificate issued by it to a qualified youth and, if the youth is employed by
more than one employer during the time the certificate is issued, shall
calculate the amount of maximum credit allowable under subsection (5) of this
section and shall inform each subsequent employer of the maximum amount of
credit under this section to which the employer may be entitled.
(d) If the community-based organization determines that the
qualified youth is unable or unwilling to find or maintain sustained
employment, the community-based organization shall cancel the certificate and
inform the Employment Department of the cancellation. Upon cancellation of a
certificate, the Employment Department may authorize any community-based
organization to issue a new certificate to a qualified youth, provided that the
total number of outstanding certificates and unissued certificates authorized
to be issued does not exceed 1,500.
(e) If the community-based organization determines that all of
the employers of a qualified youth are collectively entitled to 80 percent or
more of the tax credit provided under this section at the time the qualified
youth becomes unemployed, the community-based organization shall withdraw the
certificate, and any subsequent employer shall not be entitled to a credit
under this section for employment of the qualified youth. A certificate that is
withdrawn under this paragraph shall not be reissued.
(f) No certificate may be issued under this subsection on or
after January 1, 2001.
(7) Wages taken into account for purposes of subsection (5) of
this section shall not include any amount paid by the employer to an individual
for whom the employer receives federal funds for on-the-job training of the
individual.
(8) Only one employer at a time shall be eligible for the
credit provided under this section for the employment of a qualified youth
employee.
(9)(a) A nonresident shall be allowed the credit provided under
subsection (3) or (4) of this section computed in the same manner and subject
to the same limitations as the credit allowed to a resident of this state.
However, the credit shall be prorated using the proportion provided in ORS
316.117.
(b) If a change in the taxable year of a taxpayer occurs as described
in ORS 314.085, or if the Department of Revenue terminates the taxpayer's
taxable year under ORS 314.440, the credit allowed by subsection (3) or (4) of
this section shall be prorated or computed in a manner consistent with ORS
314.085.
(c) If a change in the status of a taxpayer from resident to
nonresident or from nonresident to resident occurs, the credit allowed by
subsection (3) or (4) of this section shall be determined in a manner
consistent with ORS 316.117.
(10) Any tax credit otherwise allowable under this section that
is not used by the taxpayer in a particular tax year may be carried forward and
offset against the taxpayer's tax liability for the next succeeding tax year.
Any credit remaining unused in such next succeeding tax year may be carried
forward and used in the second succeeding tax year, and likewise any credit not
used in that second succeeding tax year may be carried forward and used in the
third succeeding tax year, and any credit not used in that third succeeding tax
year may be carried forward and used in the fourth succeeding tax year, and any
credit not used in that fourth succeeding tax year may be carried forward and
used in the fifth succeeding tax year, but may not be carried forward for any
tax year thereafter.
(11)(a) The credit allowed under subsection (3) or (4) of this
section is in addition to any deduction otherwise allowable under ORS chapter
316, 317 or 318.
(b) No other credit allowed under this chapter or ORS chapter
316, 317 or 318 shall be based upon all or any portion of amounts upon which
the credit allowed under subsection (3) or (4) of this section is based.
(12) An employer receiving a credit under subsection (3) or (4)
of this section shall maintain records for each qualified youth employee
establishing that the employee was certified by a community-based organization
as a qualified youth on or before the hiring date and, if applicable, that the
employee was enrolled in a regularly scheduled academic or vocational program
for a period of four years after the tax year in which a credit provided under
subsection (3) or (4) of this section is taken.
(13) The Employment Department shall, on or before January 1,
1998, adopt rules that:
(a) Provide the criteria by which a youth may be identified as
eligible to participate in the First Break Program because the youth is
gang-involved, gang-affected or at risk of becoming gang-involved or
gang-affected.
(b) Designate community-based organizations that may issue the
certificates described in subsection (6) of this section, including all local
commissions [for] on children and families and the Youth
Employment and Empowerment Coalition.
NOTE: Corrects word
choice in (2)(b) and (13)(b).
SECTION 79.
ORS 319.730 is amended to read:
319.730. (1) Whenever any user is delinquent in the payment of
any obligation imposed under ORS 319.510 to 319.880, the Department of
Transportation may proceed to collect the amount due from the user in the
manner prescribed in this section.
(2) The department shall seize any motor vehicle subject to the
lien provided for by ORS 319.700 and thereafter sell it at public auction to
pay such obligation and any and all costs that may have been incurred on
account of the seizure and sale.
(3) Notice of the intended sale and the time and place thereof
shall be given to the delinquent user and to all persons appearing of record to
have an interest in the motor vehicle. The notice shall be given in writing at
least 10 days before the date set for the sale by enclosing it in an envelope addressed
to the user at the address as it appears in the records of the department and,
in the case of any person appearing of record to have an interest in the motor
vehicle, addressed to the person at the last-known residence or place of
business, and depositing the envelope in the United States mail, postage
prepaid. In addition, the notice
shall be published [for] at least
three times, the first of which shall be not less than 10 days before the date
set for the sale, in a newspaper of general circulation published in the county
in which the motor vehicle seized is to be sold. If there is no newspaper of
general circulation in the county, the notice shall be posted in three public
places in the county for such period of 10 days.
(4) The notice shall contain a description of the motor vehicle
to be sold, together with a statement of the amount due under ORS 319.510 to
319.880, the name of the user and the further statement that unless such amount
is paid before the time fixed in the notice the motor vehicle will be sold in
accordance with law and such notice.
(5) The department shall then proceed to sell the motor vehicle
in accordance with the law and the notice, and shall deliver to the purchaser a
bill of sale which shall vest title in the purchaser. If upon any such sale the
moneys received exceed the amount due to the state under ORS 319.510 to 319.880
from the delinquent user, the excess shall be returned to the user and the
receipt obtained therefor. If any person having an interest in or lien upon the
motor vehicle has filed with the department prior to the sale notice of such
interest or lien, the department shall withhold payment of any such excess to
the user pending a determination of the rights of the respective parties
thereto by a court of competent jurisdiction. If for any reason the receipt of
the user shall not be available, the department shall deposit the excess with
the State Treasurer as trustee for the user[,]
or for the heirs, successors or
assigns of the user.
NOTE: Corrects
syntax in (3) and (5).
SECTION 80.
ORS 329.155 is amended to read:
329.155. (1) State
agencies that administer education
programs and other programs [providing]
that provide services [to] for
children and families, as identified in ORS 417.315 (4), shall:
(a) Evaluate the effectiveness of the program as related to the
principles stated in ORS 329.025 and 417.305 in the earliest stages of the
budget process;
(b) Articulate ways in which the program is an effective
component of agency and state priorities, goals and strategies, such as those
developed by the Oregon Progress Board, or to relevant research and
professional standards;
(c) Establish plans, interagency partnerships, implementation
practices and interactions with local and private sectors;
(d) Utilize the information generated by applicable state
advisory groups and by the local planning process administered by the State
Commission on Children and Families in the program assessment of needs and
decisions as to service delivery in a given community; and
(e) Identify barriers to improving program capability to serve
the needs of young children and related recommendations, if any.
(2) The processes listed in subsection (1) of this section are
for the purpose of generating interagency coordination so as to serve to the
greatest extent possible young children and their families in a comprehensive
and developmentally appropriate fashion. The information generated by these
processes shall be considered as a contribution to subsequent budget decisions
by state and local agencies, the Oregon Department of Administrative Services
and Legislative Assembly, and as a contribution to the planning tasks of the
State Commission on Children and Families and the coordinating tasks of the
Oregon Coordinating Council for Children and Families.
NOTE: Corrects
syntax in (1).
SECTION 81.
ORS 329.237 is amended to read:
329.237. (1) The Department of Education shall administer the
Early Childhood Improvement Program to assist public school districts in
providing programs designed to improve educational services for children
enrolled in kindergarten through grade three. Programs shall be based on
research and proven successful practices.
(2) The programs shall include the following planned
components:
(a) Targeted services for "at-risk" children that may
be in cooperation with local commissions on children and families to provide
services to families, which may include but are not limited to remedial and
alternative academic programs, child care, parent participation and child
development services.
(b) Efforts to improve the kindergarten through third grade
curriculum and educational practices so that they:
(A) Are consistent with research findings on how children
learn;
(B) Are sensitive to individual differences such as cultural
background and learning styles; and
(C) Encourage parent participation. Such efforts may include
but are not limited to adapting curricula and training administrators and other
staff in early childhood education and child development.
(c) Comprehensive education, health care and social services
for children to be provided through interagency agreements among school
districts, health care and social service providers.
(d) Evaluation of programs by goals set by the district for the
program.
(e) Planned transition from prekindergarten programs to
kindergarten through grade three.
(3) In addition to the components listed in subsection [(4)]
(2) of this section, Early Childhood Improvement Programs may include but
are not limited to the following components:
(a) Extended day services for school age children who need care
or enrichment opportunities; and
(b) Programs designed to improve the adult to child ratios in
kindergarten through grade three.
(4) The district application shall include:
(a) Plans developed by 21st Century Schools Councils at the
school building level as described in ORS 329.704; and
(b) Demonstrated consistency with the local assessments and
plans resulting from ORS 417.705 to 417.790 and 419A.170.
(5) Funds shall be available to districts with approved
applications on a per child basis for the district's children enrolled in
kindergarten through grade three. Funds not allocated shall be prorated to the
districts with approved applications not later than the end of the fiscal year
for which the allocation is made.
(6) If the district plan proposes use of innovative
instructional materials, the State Board of Education, pursuant to ORS 337.050,
may waive the use of such instructional materials as might otherwise have been
required.
NOTE: Corrects
internal reference in (3).
SECTION 82.
ORS 329.885 is amended to read:
329.885. (1) It is the policy of the State of Oregon to
encourage educational institutions and businesses to develop, in partnership,
models for programs related to school-to-work transitions and work experience
internships directed by the Oregon Educational Act for the 21st Century as
described in ORS 329.005 to 329.165, 329.185, 329.445, 329.850 and 329.855.
(2) From funds available, the Department of Education may
allocate to any educational service district, school district, individual
secondary school or community college grants to develop programs such as those
described in subsection (1) of this section.
(3) To receive a grant to operate a program described in
subsection (1) of this section, a business shall demonstrate to the
satisfaction of the department that the program shall:
(a) Identify groups that have been traditionally
underrepresented in the programs and internships, particularly in health care,
business and high technology employment positions.
(b) Encourage students who belong to groups identified in
paragraph (a) of this subsection, particularly students in secondary schools
and community colleges, to apply for consideration and acceptance into a model
program described in subsection (1) of this section.
(c) Promote an awareness of career opportunities in the
school-to-work transition and the work experience internships among students
sufficiently early in their educational careers to permit and encourage
students to apply for the model programs.
(d) Promote cooperation among businesses, school districts and
community colleges in working toward the goals of the Oregon Educational Act
for the 21st Century.
(e) Develop academic skills, attitudes and self-confidence
necessary to allow students to succeed in the work environment, including
attitudes of curiosity and perseverance and the feelings of positive self-worth
that result from sustained effort.
(f) Provide a variety of experiences that reinforce the
attitudes needed for success in the business world.
(4) The department shall direct fund recipients to adopt rules
establishing standards for approved programs under this section, including
criteria for eligibility of organizations to receive grants, and standards to
determine the amount of grants.
(5) The department may seek and receive gifts, grants,
endowments and other funds from public or private sources as may be made from
time to time, in trust or otherwise, for the use and benefit of the purposes of
the school-to-work transition and the work experience internship programs and
may [expand] expend the same or any income therefrom according to the terms of
such gifts, grants, endowments or other funds.
NOTE: Corrects word
choice in (5).
SECTION 83.
ORS 332.432 is amended to read:
332.432. (1) As used in
this section, "remedial care" includes services rendered by a person
licensed to practice one or more of the healing arts within the scope of the
license of the person or any other remedial care recognized under the laws of
this state.
[(1)] (2) Any district school board may enter
into contracts of insurance or medical and hospital service contracts covering
[their] its employees for remedial care and hospital benefits. In addition,
the board may operate a self-insurance program to provide [their] its employees
with remedial care and hospital benefits. Failure to procure or operate a
program of hospital-medical insurance shall not be construed as negligence or
lack of diligence on the part of the district school board or members thereof.
[(2) As used in this
section "remedial care" includes services rendered by a person
licensed to practice one or more of the healing arts within the scope of the
license of the person or any other remedial care recognized under the laws of
the state.]
(3) The school district may agree to pay none, part or all of
the premiums on policies of insurance or service contracts entered into
pursuant to this section.
(4) No premium or other periodic charge on any insurance,
medical or hospital service contract shall be paid unless the insurer or
hospital association issuing such policy or contract is by law authorized to
transact business as an insurance company or hospital association in this
state.
(5) The board may negotiate more than one contract with one or
more insurance companies or hospital associations if necessary to obtain
optimum coverage at minimum cost.
NOTE: Corrects word
choice in (2); restructures statute for conformance to legislative form and style.
SECTION 84.
ORS 336.631 is amended to read:
336.631. (1) The following laws shall apply to private
alternative programs that are registered with the Department of Education under
ORS 336.635 in the same manner as the [law
applies] laws apply to school
districts and public schools:
(a) Federal law;
(b) ORS 181.539, 326.603, 326.607 and 342.232 (criminal records
checks);
(c) ORS 337.150, 339.141, 339.147 and 339.155 (tuition and
fees);
(d) ORS 659.150 and 659.155 (discrimination);
(e) Health and safety statutes and rules; and
(f) Any statute, rule or school district policy that is
specified in a contract between the school district board and the private
alternative program.
(2) Prior to placement of a student in a private alternative
program, the resident district shall determine whether the proposed placement
best serves the student's educational needs and interests within the district
and state academic standards.
(3) A school district board shall evaluate and approve annually
each registered private alternative program that provides educational services
to students enrolled in the district to ensure compliance with subsection (1)
of this section and the provisions of any contract between the district and the
program, and to ensure that the program enhances the district's ability to
achieve district and state academic standards.
(4) Contracts between a school district and a private
alternative program shall be included in the assessment of effectiveness
provided for in ORS 329.085.
NOTE: Corrects word
choice and grammar in (1).
SECTION 85.
ORS 339.030 is amended to read:
339.030. (1) In the
following cases, children shall not be required to attend public full-time
schools:
[(1)] (a) Children being taught in a private
or parochial school in the courses of study usually taught in grades 1 through
12 in the public schools and in attendance for a period equivalent to that
required of children attending public schools in the 1994-1995 school year.
[(2)] (b) Children proving to the
satisfaction of the district school board that they have acquired equivalent
knowledge to that acquired in the courses of study taught in grades 1 through
12 in the public schools.
[(3)] (c) Children being taught for a period
equivalent to that required of children attending public schools by a parent or
private teacher the courses of study usually taught in grades 1 through 12 in
the public school.
[(4)] (d) Children excluded from attendance
as provided by law.
[(5)] (2) The State Board of Education by
rule shall establish procedures whereby, on a semiannual basis, an exemption
from compulsory attendance may be granted to the parent or legal guardian of
any child 16 or 17 years of age who is lawfully employed full-time, lawfully
employed part-time and enrolled in school, or enrolled in a community college
or other state-registered alternative education program. Such exemption also
may be granted to any child who is an emancipated minor or who has initiated
the procedure for emancipation under ORS 419B.550 to 419B.558.
NOTE: Corrects
structure of statute.
SECTION 86.
ORS 339.250 is amended to read:
339.250. (1) Public school students shall comply with rules for
the government of such schools, pursue the prescribed course of study, use the
prescribed textbooks and submit to the teachers' authority.
(2) Pursuant to the written policies of a district school
board, an individual who is a teacher, administrator, school employee or school
volunteer may use reasonable physical force upon a student when and to the
extent the individual reasonably believes it necessary to maintain order in the
school or classroom or at a school activity or event, whether or not it is held
on school property. The district school board shall adopt written policies to
implement this subsection and shall inform such individuals of the existence
and content of these policies.
(3) The district school board may authorize the discipline,
suspension or expulsion of any refractory student and may suspend or expel any
student who assaults or menaces a school employee or another student. The age
of a student and the past pattern of behavior of a student shall be considered
prior to a suspension or expulsion of a student. As used in this subsection
"menace" means by word or conduct the student intentionally attempts
to place a school employee or another student in fear of imminent serious
physical injury.
(4) Willful disobedience, willful damage or injury to school
property, use of threats, intimidation, harassment or coercion against any
fellow student or school employee, open defiance of a teacher's authority or
use or display of profane or obscene language is sufficient cause for
discipline, suspension or expulsion from school.
(5) Expulsion of a student shall not extend beyond one calendar
year and suspension shall not extend beyond 10 school days.
(6)(a) Notwithstanding subsection (5) of this section, a school
district shall have a policy that requires the expulsion from school for a
period of not less than one year of any student who is determined to have:
(A) Brought a weapon to a school, to school property under the
jurisdiction of the district or to an activity under the jurisdiction of the
school district;
(B) Possessed, concealed or used a weapon in a school or on
school property or at an activity under the jurisdiction of the district; or
(C) Brought to or possessed, concealed or used a weapon at an
interscholastic activity administered by a voluntary organization approved by
the State Board of Education under ORS 339.430.
(b) The policy shall allow an exception for courses, programs
and activities approved by the school district that are conducted on school
property, including but not limited to hunter safety courses, Reserve Officer
Training Corps programs, weapons-related sports or weapons-related vocational
courses. In addition, the State Board of Education may adopt by rule additional
exceptions to be included in school district policies.
(c) The policy shall allow a superintendent to modify the
expulsion requirement for a student on a case-by-case basis.
(d) The policy shall require a referral to the appropriate law
enforcement agency of any student who is expelled under this subsection.
(e) For purposes of this subsection, "weapon"
includes a:
(A) "Firearm" as defined in 18 U.S.C. 921;
(B) "Dangerous weapon" as defined in ORS 161.015; or
(C) "Deadly weapon" as defined in ORS 161.015.
(7) The Department of Education shall collect data on any
expulsions required pursuant to subsection (6) of this section including:
(a) The name of each school;
(b) The number students expelled from each school; and
(c) The types of weapons involved.
(8) Notwithstanding ORS 336.010, a school district may require
a student to attend school during nonschool hours as an alternative to
suspension.
(9) Unless a student is under expulsion for an offense that
constitutes a violation of a school district policy adopted pursuant to
subsection (6) of this section, a school district board shall consider and
propose to the student prior to expulsion or leaving school, and document to
the parent, legal guardian or person in parental relationship, alternative
programs of instruction or instruction combined with counseling for the student
that are appropriate and accessible to the student in the following
circumstances:
(a) When a student is expelled pursuant to subsection (4) of
this section;
(b) Following a second or subsequent occurrence within any
three-year period of a severe disciplinary problem with a student;
(c) When it has been determined that a student's attendance
pattern is so erratic that the student is not benefiting from the educational
program; or
(d) When a parent or legal guardian applies for a student's
exemption from compulsory attendance on a semiannual basis as provided in ORS
339.030 [(5)] (2).
(10) A school district board may consider and propose to a
student who is under expulsion or to a student prior to expulsion for an
offense that constitutes a violation of a school district policy adopted
pursuant to subsection (6) of this section, and document to the parent, legal
guardian or person in parental relationship, alternative programs of
instruction or instruction combined with counseling for the student that are
appropriate and accessible to the student.
(11) Information on alternative programs provided under
subsections (9) and (10) of this section shall be in writing. The information
need not be given to the student and the parent, guardian or person in parental
relationship more often than once every six months unless the information has changed
because of the availability of new programs.
(12)(a) The authority to discipline a student does not
authorize the infliction of corporal punishment. Every resolution, bylaw, rule,
ordinance or other act of a district school board or of the Department of
Education that permits or authorizes the infliction of corporal punishment upon
a student is void and unenforceable.
(b) As used in this subsection, "corporal punishment"
means the willful infliction of, or willfully causing the infliction of, physical
pain on a student.
(c) As used in this subsection, "corporal punishment"
does not mean:
(A) The use of physical force authorized by ORS 161.205 for the
reasons specified therein; or
(B) Physical pain or discomfort resulting from or caused by
participation in athletic competition or other such recreational activity,
voluntarily engaged in by a student.
NOTE: Corrects ORS
reference in (9)(d). See 339.030 as amended by section 85 of this 1999 Act.
SECTION 87.
ORS 339.505 is amended to read:
339.505. (1) For purposes of the student accounting system
required by ORS 339.515, the following definitions shall be used:
(a) "Graduate" means an individual who has not
reached 21 years of age or whose 21st birthday occurs during the current school
year; has met all state requirements and local requirements for attendance,
competence and units of credit for high school; and has received one of the
following:
(A) A high school diploma issued by a school district.
(B) An adult high school diploma issued by an authorized
community college.
(C) A modified high school diploma based on the successful
completion of an individual education plan.
(b) "School dropout" means an individual who:
(A) Has enrolled for the current school year, or was enrolled
in the previous school year and did not attend during the current school year;
(B) Is not a high school graduate;
(C) Has not received a General Educational Development (GED)
certificate; and
(D) Has withdrawn from school.
(c) "School dropout" does not include a student
described by at least one of the following:
(A) Student has transferred to another educational system or
institution that leads to graduation and the school district has received a
written request for the transfer of the student's records or transcripts.
(B) Student is deceased.
(C) Student is participating in home instruction paid for by
the district.
(D) Student is being taught by a private teacher or parent
pursuant to ORS 339.030 [(3)] (1)(c).
(E) Student is participating in a Department of Education
approved public or private education program, including an alternative
education program, a Department of Human Resources facility or a hospital
education program.
(F) Student is temporarily residing in a shelter care program
certified by the Oregon Youth Authority or the State Office for Services to
Children and Families or in a juvenile detention facility.
(G) Student is enrolled in a foreign exchange program.
(H) Student is temporarily absent from school because of
suspension, a family emergency, or severe health or medical problems which
prohibit the student from attending school.
(I) Student has received a General Educational Development
(GED) certificate.
(2) The State Board of Education shall prescribe by rule when
an unexplained absence becomes withdrawal, when a student is considered
enrolled in school, acceptable alternative programs under ORS 336.615 to
336.665 and the standards for excused absences for purposes of ORS 339.065 for
family emergencies and health and medical problems.
NOTE: Corrects ORS
reference in (1)(c)(D). See 339.030 as amended by section 85 of this 1999 Act.
SECTION 88.
ORS 341.305 is amended to read:
341.305. Subject to the Local Budget Law (ORS 294.305 to
294.565) and [section] sections 11 and 11b, Article XI of the
Oregon Constitution, each community college district shall prepare annually an
estimate of the amount of funds necessary to carry out the purposes of the
district and may levy a tax upon all assessable property in the district.
NOTE: Corrects word
choice.
SECTION 89.
ORS 342.130, as amended by section 2, chapter 383, Oregon Laws 1997, is amended
to read:
342.130. (1) Nothing in ORS 342.120 to 342.173 is intended to
invalidate the life of any certificate or diploma in effect on June 30, 1965,
nor to invalidate the rights granted prior to June 30, 1965, by the law and the
rules of the State Board of Education under which the
certificate or diploma was issued.
(2) Nothing in chapter 550, Oregon Laws 1965, is intended to
invalidate the life of any teaching certificate in effect on August 13, 1965,
or to alter the rights and privileges granted prior to August 13, 1965, by the
law under which the teaching certificate was issued.
(3) Nothing in ORS 342.120 to 342.173 is intended to invalidate
the life of any basic or standard teaching or administrative license in effect
prior to January 15, 1999, nor to invalidate the rights granted prior to
January 15, 1999, by the law and by the rules of the Teacher Standards and
Practices Commission under which the license was issued.
NOTE: Clarifies
reference to board in (1).
SECTION 90.
ORS 344.520 is amended to read:
344.520. There is established a Vocational Rehabilitation
Division in the Department of Human
Resources. The division consists of an assistant director and such other
personnel as may be necessary for the efficient performance of the functions of
the division.
NOTE: Clarifies
division/department hierarchy.
SECTION 91.
ORS 344.735 is amended to read:
344.735. (1) There is established a state advisory committee [which] that shall function solely in an advisory capacity to the Assistant
Director [of the] for Vocational Rehabilitation [Division of the Department of Human
Resources] and to the Vocational
Rehabilitation Division. The assistant director shall appoint members to
the advisory committee. A majority of the advisory committee shall be disabled
persons.
(2) The assistant director shall include advisory committee
recommendations in the division's decision-making process. The advisory
committee shall:
(a) Collect and study data and other information and offer
advice concerning specialized needs of specific client groups;
(b) Provide liaison between the division and the rehabilitation
community;
(c) Review and suggest new and revised legislation affecting
the provision of vocational rehabilitation services to Oregon's disabled;
(d) Study, collect data and offer advice regarding high
priority issues identified by the division;
(e) Consider items of statewide concern relayed from regional
advisory committees; and
(f) Utilize regional committees as a resource for gathering
information as it relates to the individual areas.
(3) Through the advisory committee, the division shall take
into account views of individuals and groups who are recipients of vocational
rehabilitation services, providers of vocational rehabilitation services and
others who are active in the vocational rehabilitation field, in connection
with matters of general policy, program development and implementation.
NOTE: Corrects
official titles and grammar in (1).
SECTION 92.
ORS 345.505 is amended to read:
345.505. As used in ORS 345.505 to 345.575 unless the context
requires otherwise:
(1) "Educational services" means instructional
programs but does not include programs limited solely to dancing, drama, music,
religious or athletic instruction.
(2) "Private school" means a private elementary or
secondary school operated by a person or by a private agency except as provided
in ORS 339.030 [(3)] (1)(c), offering education in prekindergarten,
kindergarten, or grades 1 through 12 or any part thereof.
NOTE: Corrects ORS
reference in (2). See 339.030 as amended by section 85 of this 1999 Act.
SECTION 93.
ORS 348.594 is amended to read:
348.594. As used in ORS 348.594[, 348.596, 348.603] to 348.615 [and
348.992]:
(1) "School" includes a person, organization, school
or institution of learning that confers or offers to confer an academic degree
upon a person or to provide academic credit applicable to a degree.
(2) "School" does not include:
(a) An Oregon community college;
(b) A state institution of higher education within the State
System of Higher Education;
(c) The Oregon Health Sciences University; or
(d) A school that meets the criteria and procedures to obtain a
religious exemption adopted by rule by the State Scholarship Commission and
offers only degrees with approved titles in theology or religious occupations.
NOTE: Corrects
series reference.
SECTION 94.
ORS 348.596 is amended to read:
348.596. It is the purpose of ORS 348.594 to 348.615 [and 348.992] to provide for the
protection of the citizens of Oregon and their post-secondary schools by
ensuring the quality of higher education and preserving the integrity of an
academic degree as a public credential.
NOTE: Deletes
unnecessary ORS reference.
SECTION 95.
ORS 348.606 is amended to read:
348.606. (1) No school shall confer or offer to confer any
academic degree upon a person, or provide services purporting to lead to a
degree in whole or in part, without first obtaining approval from the State
Scholarship Commission through the Office of Degree Authorization. The
commission shall adopt by rule standards and procedures for the approval of
schools.
(2) The commission shall substitute the standards adopted under
subsection (1) of this section with private accreditation standards for a
school that has conferred degrees under the same control for five years in
Oregon from at least one operationally separate unit accredited as a separate
institution by a regional accrediting association or its national successor,
provided the school submits for arbitration by the commission any unresolved
dispute in which a person alleges detrimental violation of a standard
guaranteed by the accrediting association but which the association has
declined to arbitrate.
(3) The commission, by rule, may impose a fee on any school
applying for approval to confer or offer to confer a degree upon a person or to
provide academic credit applicable to a degree. The fee is nonrefundable. The
amount of the fee shall be established to recover designated expenses incurred
by the commission in carrying out the administration of ORS 348.594 to 348.615
[and 348.992].
NOTE: Deletes
unnecessary ORS reference in (3).
SECTION 96.
ORS 348.625 is amended to read:
348.625. As used in ORS 348.570 and 348.625 to 348.695:
(1) "Alternative student loan program" means a
program established by the State Scholarship Commission to fund loans to
eligible students, or to qualifying parents of eligible students, to help meet
expenses of eligible students of attending post-secondary educational
institutions; provided, however, that alternative student loan program loans
may be made only to students who have applied for student financial aid under
Title IV, Part B of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended, and have
received information on their eligibility for programs under that Act, or the
parents of students who have made such application and received such
information.
[(2)
"Commission" means the State Scholarship Commission.]
[(3)] (2) "Eligible student" means
a student enrolled in an eligible post-secondary educational institution
located in Oregon or a student who is an Oregon resident and who is enrolled in
an eligible post-secondary educational institution located outside of Oregon.
The commission shall determine, among other things, what constitutes enrollment
and which post-secondary educational institutions are eligible institutions
under the alternative student loan program.
[(4)] (3) "Lender" means an insured
institution as defined in ORS 706.008 that is authorized to do business in
Oregon and which has entered into an agreement with the commission to
originate, service and administer alternative student loans in the manner
authorized by ORS 348.570 and 348.625 to 348.695.
NOTE: Deletes
duplicative definition. See 348.505.
SECTION 97.
ORS 348.992 is amended to read:
348.992. Violation of any of the provisions of ORS 348.594 to
348.615 [and 348.992] by any person
individually or on behalf of an organization or group is a Class B misdemeanor.
NOTE: Deletes
unnecessary ORS reference.
SECTION 98.
ORS 351.070 is amended to read:
351.070. (1) The State System of Higher Education, in
accordance with rules adopted by the State Board of Higher Education, shall
implement a personnel system and may engage in collective bargaining with its
employees. All collective bargaining with any certified or recognized exclusive
employee representative shall be under the direction and supervision of the
Chancellor of the State System of Higher Education. The State System of Higher
Education shall have payroll authority pursuant to ORS 292.043 to 292.180.
(2)(a) The board
shall establish competitive procedures for the purchasing, procurement and
contracting of goods and services for the benefit of the State System of Higher
Education and all the institutions, departments and activities therein.
[(a)] (b) The board shall ensure that the
hourly rate of wage paid by any contractor upon all public improvements
contracts undertaken for the board shall not be less than the same rate of wage
as determined by the Bureau of Labor and Industries for an hour's work in the
same trade or occupation in the locality where such labor is performed. Claims
or disputes arising under this subsection shall be decided by the Commissioner
of the Bureau of Labor and Industries.
[(b)] (c) The board shall adopt policies and
procedures that achieve results equal to or better than the standards existing
on July 17, 1995, regarding affirmative action, pay equity for comparable work,
recycling, the provision of workers' compensation insurance to workers on
contract and the participation of emerging small businesses and businesses
owned by minorities and women.
(3) The board may, for each institution under its control:
(a) Appoint and employ a president and the requisite number of
professors, teachers and employees, and prescribe their compensation and tenure
of office or employment.
(b) Demand and receive the interest mentioned in ORS 352.510
and all sums due and accruing to the institutions of higher education for
admission and tuition therein, and apply the same, or so much thereof as is
necessary, to the payment of the compensation referred to in paragraph (a) of
this subsection and the other current expenses of the institutions.
(c) Prescribe fees for enrollment into the institutions. Such
enrollment fees shall include tuition for education and general services and
such other charges found by the board to be necessary to carry out its
educational programs. The board may award student aid from any fund other than
the General Fund.
(d) Prescribe incidental fees for programs under the
supervision or control of the board found by the board, upon its own motion or
upon recommendation of the recognized student government of the institution
concerned, to be advantageous to the cultural or physical development of
students. Fees realized in excess of amounts allocated and exceeding required
reserves shall be considered surplus incidental fees and shall be allocated for
programs under the control of the board and found to be advantageous to the
cultural or physical development of students by the institution president upon
the recommendation of the recognized student government at the institution
concerned.
(e) Upon recommendation of the recognized student government,
collect optional fees authorized by the institution executive, for student
activities not included in paragraph (c) or (d) of this subsection. The payment
of such optional fees shall be at the option and selection of the student and
shall not be a prerequisite of enrollment.
(f) Confer, on the recommendation of the faculty of any such
institution, such degrees as usually are conferred by such institutions, or as
they deem appropriate.
(g) Prescribe the qualifications for admission into such
institutions.
(4) Subject to such delegation as the board may decide to make
to the institutions, divisions and departments under its control, the board,
for each institution, division and department under its control, shall:
(a) Supervise the general course of instruction therein, and
the research, extension, educational and other activities thereof.
(b) Adopt rules and bylaws for the government thereof,
including the faculty, teachers, students and employees therein.
(c) Maintain cultural and physical development services and
facilities therefor and, in connection therewith, may cooperate and enter into
agreements with any person or governmental agency; and may provide student
health services and contract therefor.
(d) Prescribe and collect charges.
(e) Adopt rules relating to the creation, use, custody and
disclosure, including access, of student education records of the institutions
that are consistent with the requirements of applicable state and federal law.
Whenever a student has attained 18 years of age or is attending an institution
of post-secondary education, the permission or consent required of and the
rights accorded to a parent of the student regarding education records shall
thereafter be required of and accorded to only the student.
(5) For each institution under its jurisdiction, the board
shall provide opportunities for part-time students to obtain complete
undergraduate degrees at unconventional times, which include but are not
limited to early morning and noon hours, evenings and weekends. In
administering these degree programs, the institution may use any educational
facility available for the use of the institution.
NOTE: Corrects
structure of (2).
SECTION 99.
ORS 351.110 is amended to read:
351.110. All relationships and negotiations between the [state legislature] Legislative Assembly and its various committees and the
institutions of higher education shall be carried on through the Department of
Higher Education. No subordinate official representing any of the separate
institutions shall appear before the [legislature]
Legislative Assembly or any
committee except upon the written authority of the State Board of Higher
Education.
NOTE: Sets forth
official title.
SECTION 100.
ORS 366.335 is amended to read:
366.335. (1) Whenever in the location, relocation, construction
or betterment of any highway within the state, it is deemed necessary to
locate, relocate or construct the highway, or any part thereof, upon the right
of way of any railroad company, the state, through the Department of
Transportation, may negotiate and
agree with the railroad company for the right to use or occupy the right of
way, or so much thereof as is necessary for highway purposes.
(2) In case no satisfactory agreement can be effected, then the
state, through the department, may acquire the right of way by exercise of the
power of eminent domain, and for that purpose may commence and prosecute
condemnation proceedings to acquire the right to the use and occupancy of sufficient
of the railroad right of way for highway purposes.
(3) Nothing in subsection (2) of this section authorizes the
use or occupancy of the railroad right of way which would interfere with the
operation of the railroad or its necessary appurtenances, taking into
consideration the use of the railroad right of way by the company for yards,
terminals, station grounds and necessary additional trackage, or which would
jeopardize the safety of the public.
(4) In the event that the right of way or property of any
railroad company in the state required or needed for state highway location,
relocation, construction or betterment, and any portion of the property or
right of way is likewise needed and required by the railroad company for the
proper operation of its trains and the usual and ordinary conduct of its
business, but which property or land the railroad company is willing to deed to
the state for highway purposes in exchange for a like amount of land within a
reasonable distance, the state, through the department, may acquire by
purchase, agreement or by exercise of the power of eminent domain, an equal
amount of land or property within a reasonable distance. After having acquired
such land or property, the state, through the department, may convey the same to
the railroad company in exchange for the land or property needed and required
from the railroad company for highway purposes. The difference in the value of
the respective parcels of land shall be considered by the department in making
the exchange.
NOTE: Inserts comma
for clarity in (1).
SECTION 101. ORS 377.650 and 377.655 are added to and
made a part of ORS 377.605 to 377.645.
NOTE: Adds statutes
to appropriate series.
SECTION 102.
ORS 377.650 is amended to read:
377.650. Any personal property not coming within the definition
of junk [as defined in ORS 377.605],
except a vehicle as defined in ORS 801.590, which is deposited, left or
displayed on a state highway is hereby found and declared to be a public
nuisance. The Director of Transportation
may do any of the following with respect to personal property declared to be a
nuisance by this section:
(1) Ten days after written notice is mailed to the person
owning the personal property, the director may institute on behalf of the
Department of Transportation any
legal proceedings the director considers necessary to prevent the violation of
this section.
(2) Ten days after written notice, the director may remove the
personal property and store it. After 30 days of storage, unless claimed sooner
by the owner, the director may sell or otherwise dispose of the personal
property. Where removal is performed by the director, the director shall not be
liable for any conversion of personal property and may collect the cost for
removal, storage and sale or disposal of the personal property from the person
owning it.
(3) If the property is a sign, as defined under ORS 377.710,
that is portable or if the property has been repeatedly deposited, left or
displayed in violation of this section, the director may follow the procedures
under ORS 377.655. This subsection applies notwithstanding any other provision
of this section.
NOTE: Deletes
unnecessary ORS reference; sets forth official titles.
SECTION 103.
ORS 390.139 is amended to read:
390.139. (1) The State Parks and Recreation Department shall
administer a program designed to allow volunteers to assist in the operation
and maintenance of Oregon's state parks. The program shall include public
informational activities, but shall be directed primarily toward encouraging
and facilitating involvement of [volunteer
groups] volunteers in park
operation and maintenance, assigning each [group]
volunteer to a specific state park.
The program shall be called the Oregon Adopt-a-Park Program.
(2) Private landowners with parks adjacent to their property
are vital to the success of the Oregon Adopt-a-Park Program. The State Parks
and Recreation Department shall ensure that participants in the program comply
with requirements to obtain permission from landowners for access across
private property if necessary to perform the volunteers' duties.
(3) Program funding is an authorized use of the State Parks and
Recreation Department Fund under ORS 390.134.
(4) The State Parks and Recreation Department may adopt any
rules necessary for implementation of the Oregon Adopt-a-Park Program.
(5) An agreement entered into between the State Parks and
Recreation Department and a volunteer [group]
under subsection (1) of this section shall include but need not be limited to:
(a) Identification of the designated state park. The volunteer
[group] may request a specific state
park the [group] volunteer wishes to adopt, but the assignment shall be at the
discretion of the State Parks and Recreation Department. In assigning parks,
the department shall coordinate and cooperate with affected federal, state and
local management agencies and private landowners.
(b) Specification of the duties of the volunteer [group].
(c) Specification of the responsibilities of the volunteer [group]. The [group] volunteer shall
agree to abide by all rules related to the program that are adopted by the
State Parks and Recreation Department.
(d) Specification of the duration of the agreement. The
volunteer [group] shall contract to
care for the designated state park for one year.
(6) The State Parks and Recreation Department shall create a
recognition program to acknowledge the efforts of [volunteer groups] volunteers,
agencies and businesses that participate in the Oregon Adopt-a-Park Program.
(7) The State Parks and Recreation Department may provide trash
bags, supplies, equipment and safety information and assistance to the
participating [volunteer groups] volunteers.
(8) As used in this section, "volunteer" may include
an individual, a group of individuals, a volunteer group or service club, or
any entity that is tax exempt under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue
Code, as amended.
NOTE: Conforms terms
to definition in (8).
SECTION 104.
ORS 390.195 is amended to read:
390.195. (1) The State Parks and Recreation Department shall
use state correctional institution inmate labor to improve, maintain and repair
buildings and property at state parks and recreation areas whenever feasible.
The provisions of ORS chapter 279 [and
ORS 291.021] do not apply to the use of state correctional institution
inmate labor under this section.
(2) The State Parks and Recreation Director shall assign and
supervise the work of the state inmates who are performing the work described
in subsection (1) of this section.
(3) Nothing in this section is intended to exempt the State
Parks and Recreation Department from the provisions of ORS 279.835 to 279.855
for any purpose other than the use of state correctional institution inmate
labor.
NOTE: Deletes
reference to repealed statute in (1).
SECTION 105.
ORS 410.430 is amended to read:
410.430. (1) In order to qualify for services from an
authorized agency or service provider, each client or recipient must:
(a) Be 60 years old or older or [has] have been diagnosed
as having Alzheimer's disease or a related disorder;
(b) Not be receiving support or services from the Adult and
Family Services Division, except food stamp benefits; and
(c) Be assessed to be at the risk of entering an institution.
(2) Eligibility determination shall be required before any
client may receive services from an authorized agency or service provider.
NOTE: Corrects
grammar in (1)(a).
SECTION 106.
ORS 411.040 is amended to read:
411.040. The Adult and Family Services Division is established in the Department of Human Resources.
The division consists of the Assistant Director for Adult and Family Services,
employees of the division necessary to carry out the functions of the division
and the Public Welfare Review Commission established under ORS 411.125.
NOTE: Clarifies
division/department hierarchy.
SECTION 107.
ORS 414.025 is amended to read:
414.025. As used in this chapter, unless the context or a
specially applicable statutory definition requires otherwise:
(1) "Category of aid" means old-age assistance, aid
to the blind, aid to the disabled, temporary assistance for needy families or
Supplemental Security Income payment of the Federal Government.
(2) "Categorically needy" means, insofar as funds are
available for the category, a person who is a resident of this state and who:
(a) Is receiving a category of aid.
(b) Would be eligible for, but is not receiving a category of
aid.
(c) Is in a medical facility and, if the person left such
facility, would be eligible for a category of aid.
(d) Is under the age of 21 years and would be a dependent child
under the program for temporary assistance for needy families except for age
and regular attendance in school or in a course of professional or technical
training.
(e) Is a caretaker relative named in ORS 418.035 [(1)(c)] (1)(a)(C) who cares for a dependent child who would be a dependent
child under the program for temporary assistance for needy families except for
age and regular attendance in school or in a course of professional or
technical training; or is the spouse of such caretaker relative and fulfills
the requirements of ORS 418.035 (2).
(f) Is under the age of 21 years, is in a foster family home or
licensed child-caring agency or institution under a purchase of care agreement
and is one for whom a public agency of this state is assuming financial
responsibility, in whole or in part.
(g) Is a spouse of an individual receiving a category of aid
and who is living with the recipient of a category of aid, whose needs and
income are taken into account in determining the cash needs of the recipient of
a category of aid, and who is determined by the Department of Human Resources
to be essential to the well-being of the recipient of a category of aid.
(h) Is a caretaker relative named in ORS 418.035 [(1)(c)] (1)(a)(C) who cares for a dependent child receiving temporary
assistance for needy families or is the spouse of such caretaker relative and
fulfills the requirements of ORS 418.035 (2).
(i) Is under the age of 21 years, is in a youth care center and
is one for whom a public agency of this state is assuming financial
responsibility, in whole or in part.
(j) Is under the age of 21 years and is in an intermediate care
facility which includes institutions for the mentally retarded; or is under the
age of 22 years and is in a psychiatric hospital.
(k) Is under the age of 21 years and is in an independent
living situation with all or part of the maintenance cost paid by the State
Office for Services to Children and Families.
(L) Is a member of a family that received temporary assistance
for needy families in at least three of the six months immediately preceding
the month in which such family became ineligible for such assistance because of
increased hours of or increased income from employment. As long as the member
of the family is employed, such families will continue to be eligible for
medical assistance for a period of at least six calendar months beginning with
the month in which such family became ineligible for assistance because of
increased hours of employment or increased earnings.
(m) Is an adopted person under 21 years of age for whom a
public agency is assuming financial responsibility in whole or in part.
(n) Is an individual or is a member of a group who is required
by federal law to be included in the state's medical assistance program in
order for that program to qualify for federal funds.
(o) Is an individual or member of a group who, subject to the
rules of the office and within available funds, may optionally be included in
the state's medical assistance program under federal law and regulations
concerning the availability of federal funds for the expenses of that
individual or group.
(p) Is a pregnant woman who would be eligible for temporary
assistance for needy families including such aid based on the unemployment of a
parent, whether or not the woman is eligible for cash assistance.
(q) Would be eligible for temporary assistance for needy
families pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 607 based upon the unemployment of a parent,
whether or not the state provides cash assistance.
(r) Except as otherwise provided in this section and to the
extent of available funds, is a pregnant woman or child for whom federal
financial participation is available under Title XIX of the federal Social
Security Act.
(s) Is not otherwise categorically needy and is not eligible
for care under Title XVIII of the federal Social Security Act or is not a
full-time student in a post-secondary education program as defined by the
Department of Human Resources by rule, but whose family income is less than the
federal poverty level and whose family investments and savings equal less than
the investments and savings limit established by the department by rule.
(3) "Income" means income as defined in ORS 413.005
(3).
(4) "Investments and savings" means cash, securities
as defined in ORS 59.015, negotiable instruments as defined in ORS 73.0104 and
such similar investments or savings as the Department of Human Resources may
establish by rule that are available to the applicant or recipient to
contribute toward meeting the needs of the applicant or recipient.
(5) "Medical assistance" means so much of the
following medical and remedial care and services as may be prescribed by the
Department of Human Resources according to the standards established pursuant
to ORS 414.065, including payments made for services provided under an
insurance or other contractual arrangement and money paid directly to the
recipient for the purchase of medical care:
(a) Inpatient hospital services, other than services in an
institution for mental diseases;
(b) Outpatient hospital services;
(c) Other laboratory and X-ray services;
(d) Skilled nursing facility services, other than services in
an institution for mental diseases;
(e) Physicians' services, whether furnished in the office, the
patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing facility or elsewhere;
(f) Medical care, or any other type of remedial care recognized
under state law, furnished by licensed practitioners within the scope of their
practice as defined by state law;
(g) Home health care services;
(h) Private duty nursing services;
(i) Clinic services;
(j) Dental services;
(k) Physical therapy and related services;
(L) Prescribed drugs, dentures, and prosthetic devices; and
eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in diseases of the eye or by an
optometrist, whichever the individual may select;
(m) Other diagnostic, screening, preventive and rehabilitative
services;
(n) Inpatient hospital services, skilled nursing facility
services and intermediate care facility services for individuals 65 years of
age or over in an institution for mental diseases;
(o) Any other medical care, and any other type of remedial care
recognized under state law;
(p) Periodic screening and diagnosis of individuals under the
age of 21 years to ascertain their physical or mental defects, and such health
care, treatment and other measures to correct or ameliorate defects and chronic
conditions discovered thereby;
(q) Inpatient hospital services for individuals under 22 years
of age in an institution for mental diseases; and
(r) Hospice services.
(6) "Medical assistance" includes any care or
services for any individual who is a patient in a medical institution or any
care or services for any individual who has attained 65 years of age or is
under 22 years of age, and who is a patient in a private or public institution
for mental diseases. "Medical assistance" includes "health
services" as defined in ORS 414.705. "Medical assistance" does
not include care or services for an inmate in a nonmedical public institution.
(7) "Medically needy" means a person who is a
resident of this state and who is considered eligible under federal law for
medically needy assistance.
(8) "Resources" means resources as defined in ORS
413.005 (4).
NOTE: Corrects ORS
references in (2)(e) and (h). See 418.035 as amended by section 111 of this
1999 Act.
SECTION 108.
ORS 416.030 is amended to read:
416.030. (1) Upon receipt of the report of the investigation
referred to in ORS 416.020, the Adult and Family Services Division may make
such further investigation of the matter as it may deem necessary to ascertain
the facts in relation thereto.
(2) No liability for the support of a needy person shall be
imposed under the provisions of ORS 416.010 to 416.260 upon:
(a) A living relative of such needy person during any period
when a court order or decree, entered in a proceeding other than a proceeding
under ORS 416.010 to 416.260, is in effect, which requires the relative to pay
a sum of money for the support of that person.
(b) A living relative of such needy person during any period
when the relative is subject to or exempt from support under ORS 179.610 to
179.770.
(c) The child of a needy person if, during the minority of the
child, such person willfully deserted or abandoned the child, or, by expulsion
or cruelty, drove the child from the parental home, or, without good cause, was
responsible for the [child's being
"dependent" as defined by ORS 418.205 (2)] child being a dependent child.
(d) The child of a needy person, if, during the minority of the
child, such person is committed by order of the court to a state institution
for the mentally ill or mentally deficient.
(3) As used in this
section, "dependent child" means a person under 18 years of age whose
conduct or condition is such as to fall within the provisions of ORS 419B.100
(1)(a), (b) or (c) or 419C.005 (1).
NOTE: Deletes
obsolete ORS reference in (2)(c); inserts appropriate definition. See section
1, chapter 510, Oregon Laws 1983.
SECTION 109.
ORS 417.210 is amended to read:
417.210. (1) Financial responsibility for any child placed
pursuant to the provisions of the Interstate Compact on the Placement of
Children shall be determined in accordance with the provisions of Article V
thereof in the first instance. However, in the event of partial or complete
default of performance thereunder, the provisions of ORS 110.300 to 110.441 and
416.010 to 416.260 and any other applicable laws also may be invoked.
(2) The "appropriate public authorities" as used in
Article III of the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children shall, with
reference to this state, mean the State Office for Services to Children and
Families [of the Department of Human
Resources] and the office shall receive and act with reference to notices
required by Article III thereof.
(3) As used in paragraph (a) of Article V of the Interstate
Compact on the Placement of Children, the phrase "appropriate authority in
the receiving state" with reference to this state shall mean the State
Office for Services to Children and Families [of the Department of Human Resources].
NOTE: Deletes
unnecessary reference to Department of Human Resources.
SECTION 110.
ORS 417.760 is amended to read:
417.760. (1) The board of county commissioners of a county or
the boards of county commissioners of contiguous counties that agree to appoint
a regional commission:
(a) Shall appoint a chairperson and a minimum of eight members
to a local commission [for] on children and families in the manner
described in ORS 417.765.
(b) Shall appoint a local staff director. The staff director
shall hire and supervise any other support staff necessary for operation of the
local commission. The staff director and staff are subject to county personnel
policies and other administration policies and ordinances. The staff director
shall be responsible for all management functions of the local commission.
(c) Must approve the local plan before it may be submitted to
the State Commission on Children and Families. If the local plan has been
revised or is amended, the revised or amended plan must be submitted to the
board or boards for approval before it is submitted to the state commission.
(2) The board or boards of county commissioners must approve
any transfer of responsibility for a state service and its funding to a local
commission.
(3) Funds payable to implement local plans shall be paid to the
county. The board or boards of county commissioners are responsible for the
expenditure of such funds subject to county budget and fiscal operating
procedures.
NOTE: Corrects word
choice in (1)(a).
SECTION 111.
ORS 418.035 is amended to read:
418.035. As used in ORS 418.035 to 418.172, unless the context
or a specially applicable statutory definition requires otherwise:
(1)(a)
"Dependent child" means a needy child:
[(a)] (A) Who has been deprived of parental
support or care by reason of the death, continued absence from the home or
physical or mental incapacity of a parent; [and]
[(b)] (B) Whose relatives are not able to
provide adequate care and support for [such]
the child without public assistance,
as defined in ORS 411.010; [and]
[(c)] (C) Who is living with the child's
father, mother, grandfather, grandmother, brother, sister, stepfather,
stepmother, stepbrother, stepsister, uncle, aunt, first cousin, nephew or niece
in a place of residence maintained by one or more of such relatives as the
child's or their own home; and [either]
(D) Who meets the
requirements of paragraph (b) of this subsection.
[(d)] (b)(A) [Who is] Except as provided
in subparagraphs (B) and (C) of this paragraph, a "dependent child"
must be under the age of 18 years[;].
[(e)] (B) A child may qualify as a
"dependent child," subject to the availability of funds, [for
the children described in this paragraph, who] if the child is 18 or 19 or 20 years of age and a student regularly
attending a school in grade 12 or below or regularly attending a course of
professional or technical training designed
to fit the child for gainful employment, other than a course provided by or
through a college or university[,
designed to fit the child for gainful employment; or].
[(f)] (C) Students under the age of 21 years
and regularly attending a school, college or university or regularly attending
a course of professional or technical training designed to fit the child for
gainful employment may be included in the description in [paragraph (e) of this subsection] subparagraph (B) of this paragraph at the option of the Adult and
Family Services Division.
(2) "Aid" means money payments with respect to, or [in] on
behalf of, a dependent child or children[,]
and includes:
(a) Money payments to meet the needs of[:]
[(A)] the relative
with whom [such] the child is living[; and
either] and:
[(B)] (A) The spouse of [such] the relative if [living] the spouse lives with the relative, [and if such] the relative is the child's parent and
the child is a dependent child by reason of the physical or mental incapacity
of a parent; or
[(C)] (B) The spouse of [such] the relative if [living] the spouse lives with the relative, [and if such] the relative is the child's parent and
the child is a dependent child as defined in ORS 418.070 (1)(a) and is
dependent by reason of the unemployment of parents.
(b) Payments made to a representative payee or guardian
pursuant to ORS 418.050 or 418.054.
(3) "Representative payee" means an individual
designated by the Adult and Family Services Division to receive money payments
of aid pursuant to ORS 418.050.
NOTE: Conforms
section structure to legislative form and style; corrects grammar and syntax;
beautifies ORS.
SECTION 112.
ORS 418.070 is amended to read:
418.070. For the purposes of ORS 418.035 to 418.185, with
respect to any period for which federal funds are made available to this state
in aid of a state-administered program of aid to any child defined in and
meeting the requirements of this section:
(1) "Dependent child" includes:
(a) A needy child meeting the requirements of ORS 418.035 [(1)(d) or (e)] (1)(b)(A) or (B) who has been deprived of parental support or care
by reason of the unemployment of a parent or parents and who is living with any
of the relatives specified in ORS 418.035 (1) in a place of residence
maintained by one or more of such relatives as the relative's or relatives' own
home.
(b) A child:
(A) Who would meet the requirements of ORS 418.035 (1) or of
paragraph (a) of this subsection except for removal after April 30, 1961, from
the home of a relative specified in ORS 418.035 (1) as a result of a judicial
determination to the effect that continuation therein would be contrary to the
welfare of such child,
(B) Who has been accepted for placement and care by either or
both the Adult and Family Services Division and the State Office for Services
to Children and Families,
(C) Who has been placed in a foster home or licensed nonprofit
private child-caring agency as a result of such determination, and
(D) Who received aid in or for the month in which court
proceedings leading to such determination were initiated, or would have
received such aid in or for such month if application had been made therefor,
or in the case of a child who had been living with a relative specified in ORS
418.035 (1) within six months prior to the month in which such proceedings were
initiated, would have received such aid in or for such month if in such month
the child had been living with and removed from the home of such a relative and
application had been made therefor.
(2) "Foster home" means a foster home which is
certified by this state or has been approved, by the agency of this state
responsible for the certification of foster homes, as meeting the standards
established for such certification.
(3) "Aid" includes foster care in behalf of a child
described in subsection (1)(b) of this section in the foster home of any
individual or in a licensed nonprofit private child-caring agency.
(4) "Unemployment of parent" shall be defined by the
Adult and Family Services Division and such definition may take into account
definitions used to establish the availability of federal funds for the program
of temporary assistance for needy families.
NOTE: Corrects ORS
references in (1)(a). See 418.035 as amended by section 111 of this 1999 Act.
SECTION 113.
ORS 418.312 is amended to read:
418.312. (1) The State Office for Services to Children and
Families [of the Department of Human
Resources] shall not require any parent or legal guardian to transfer legal
custody of a child in order to have the child placed under ORS 418.205 to
418.310, 418.480 to 418.500 and 418.992 to 418.998 in a foster home, group home
or institutional child care setting, when the sole reason for the placement is
the need to obtain services for the child's emotional, behavioral or mental
disorder or developmental or physical disability. In all such cases, the child
shall be placed pursuant to a voluntary placement agreement. When a child is
placed pursuant to a voluntary placement agreement, the State Office for
Services to Children and Families shall have responsibility for the child's
placement and care. When a child remains in voluntary placement for more than
180 days, the juvenile court shall make a judicial determination, within the
first 180 days of the placement, that the placement is in the best interests of
the child. In addition, the juvenile court shall hold a dispositional hearing
no later than 18 months after the original voluntary placement, and every two
years thereafter during the continuation of the placement, to determine the
future status of the child.
(2) As used in this section, "voluntary placement
agreement" means a binding, written agreement between the State Office for
Services to Children and Families and the parent or legal guardian of a minor
child that does not transfer legal custody to the State Office for Services to
Children and Families but that specifies, at a minimum, the legal status of the
child and the rights and obligations of the parent or legal guardian, the child
and the State Office for Services to Children and Families while the child is
in placement.
NOTE: Deletes
unnecessary reference to Department of Human Resources.
SECTION 114.
ORS 418.658 is amended to read:
418.658. (1) The program
director of the Oregon Youth Conservation Corps shall establish a separate
program known as the Oregon Community Service Corps. In addition to the
established purposes of the Oregon Youth Conservation Corps, the purpose of the
Oregon Community Service Corps is to promote community service activities
throughout the state for a broad cross section of Oregon disadvantaged and
at-risk youth through programs that also include appropriate educational and
job training opportunities for participants.
(2) In addition to projects submitted under ORS 418.660 (1),
projects of the Oregon Community Service Corps may include, but shall not be
limited to:
(a) Child care services.
(b) Elderly and disabled care services.
(c) Literacy education programs.
(d) Recycling and other waste reduction services.
(3) The Oregon Community Service Corps shall offer employment
and educational opportunities of at least three but not more than 12 months'
duration for selected participants.
(4) Under rules adopted by the program director, participants
who successfully complete any 12-month program under this section shall be
eligible for $1,500 in tuition vouchers that can be used at any career school
or post-secondary educational institution that is qualified to receive
assistance through the State Scholarship Commission.
(5) All Oregonians who are at least 16 years of age and under
25 years of age are eligible to participate in the program. To ensure that
Oregon Community Service Corps participants represent a broad cross section of
Oregonians, special emphasis shall be given to recruiting high school dropouts
and other disadvantaged and at-risk youth, according to criteria established by
the Oregon Youth Conservation Corps Advisory Committee.
(6) To the extent practicable, the program director shall
enlist state and federal agencies, local government, nonprofit organizations,
and private businesses, and any combination of such entities, to act as
sponsors for programs administered under this section. Selection of sponsors
shall be based on criteria that include the following:
(a) The availability of other resources on a matching basis,
including contributions from private sources, other federal, state and local
agencies, and moneys available through the Job Training Partnership Act (P.L.
97-300, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 1501 et seq.);
(b) The provision of related educational and job training
programs to participants, including but not limited to high school and college
coursework, General Educational Development (GED) tests equivalency training,
project-related education and professional training;
(c) Assurances that proposed projects will not displace
existing employees or duplicate existing private or government programs;
(d) Assurances that proposed projects are devoted to the
enhancement of the community and are not based in maintenance activities and
that these projects meet an identified need; and
(e) Assurances that the proposed projects have been reviewed by
the appropriate local commission on children and families established under ORS
417.760.
(7) In consultation with the advisory committee and with the
approval of the local commission, the program director shall make grants for
programs administered under this section.
NOTE: Corrects
official title in (1).
SECTION 115.
ORS 418.784 is amended to read:
418.784. (1) There is created the Advisory Council on Child
Abuse Assessment, consisting of at least nine members appointed by the
Assistant Director for Health, who shall serve as an ex officio member of the
council. The council shall direct the administrator of the Child Abuse
Multidisciplinary Intervention Account on administering funds to establish
regional assessment centers or community assessment services under ORS 418.780
to 418.796.
(2) Of the members appointed to the council:
(a) One member shall be an employee of the State Office for
Services to Children and Families;
(b) One member shall be a physician licensed to practice
medicine in Oregon and who specializes in children and families;
(c) One member shall be a person having experience dealing with
child abuse;
(d) One member shall be a district attorney or the designee of
a district attorney;
(e) One member shall be an employee of a law enforcement
agency, in addition to the member who is a district attorney or the designee of
a district attorney;
(f) One member shall be from an operating regional assessment
center; and
(g) [Other members who
are] At least three members shall be
citizens with appropriate interest in advocating for the medical interest of
abused children.
(3) The members of the council are not entitled to compensation
or expenses.
(4) The council shall elect one of its members to serve as
chairperson, for such terms and with such duties and powers as the council
determines.
(5) The council shall meet at least once every three months at
a place, day and hour determined by the council.
(6) A majority of the members of the council constitutes a
quorum for the transaction of business.
NOTE: Corrects
syntax in (2)(g).
SECTION 116.
ORS 419A.004 is amended to read:
419A.004. As used in this chapter and ORS chapters 419B and
419C, unless the context requires otherwise:
(1) "CASA Volunteer Program" means a program approved
or sanctioned by the juvenile court to recruit, train and supervise volunteer
persons to serve as court appointed special advocates.
(2) "Child" means a person within the jurisdiction of
the juvenile court as provided in ORS 419B.100.
(3) "Child care center" means a residential facility
for the care and supervision of children that is licensed under the provisions
of ORS 418.240.
(4) "Community service" has the meaning given that
term in ORS 137.126.
(5) "Conflict of interest" means a person appointed
to a local citizen review board who has a personal or pecuniary interest in a
case being reviewed by that board.
(6) "Counselor" means a juvenile department
counselor.
(7) "Court" means the juvenile court.
(8) "Court appointed special advocate" or
"CASA" means a person appointed by the court pursuant to a CASA
Volunteer Program to act as special advocate for a child pursuant to ORS
419A.170.
(9) "Detention" or "detention facility"
means a facility established under ORS 419A.010 to 419A.020 and 419A.050 to
419A.063 for the detention of dependent children or delinquent youth pursuant
to a judicial commitment or order.
(10) "Director" means the director of a juvenile
department established under ORS 419A.010 to 419A.020 and 419A.050 to 419A.063.
(11) "Guardian" means guardian of the person and not
guardian of the estate.
(12) "Indian child" means any unmarried person less
than 18 years of age who is:
(a) A member of an Indian tribe;
(b) Eligible for membership in an Indian tribe and is the
biological child of a member of an Indian tribe; or
(c) Covered by the terms of an Indian Child Welfare Act
agreement between Oregon and an Indian tribe.
(13) "Juvenile court" means the court having
jurisdiction of juvenile matters in the several counties of this state.
(14) "Local citizen review board" means the board
specified by ORS 419A.090 and 419A.092.
(15) "Office" means the State Office for Services to
Children and Families.
(16) "Parent" means the biological or adoptive mother
of the child and the legal or adoptive father of the child. A legal father
includes:
(a) A nonimpotent, nonsterile man who was cohabiting with his
wife, who is the mother of the child, at the time of conception;
(b) A man married to the mother of the child at the time of
birth, where there is no decree of separation and the presumption of paternity
has not been disputed;
(c) A biological father who marries the mother of the child
after the birth of the child;
(d) A biological father who has established or declared
paternity through filiation proceedings or under ORS 416.400 to 416.470; and
(e) A biological father who has, with the mother, established
paternity through a [joint declaration]
voluntary acknowledgment of
paternity under ORS 109.070.
(17) "Reasonable time" means a period of time that is
reasonable given a child's emotional and developmental needs and ability to
form and maintain lasting attachments.
(18) "Records" means any information in written form,
pictures, photographs, charts, graphs, recordings or documents pertaining to a
case.
(19) "Resides" or "residence," when used in
reference to the residence of a child or youth, means the place where the child
or youth is actually living or the jurisdiction in which wardship of the child
or youth has been established.
(20) "Restitution" has the meaning given that term in
ORS 137.103.
(21) "Serious physical injury" means:
(a) A serious physical injury as defined in ORS 161.015; or
(b) A physical injury that:
(A) Has a permanent or protracted significant effect on a
child's daily activities;
(B) Results in substantial and recurring pain; or
(C) In the case of a child under 10 years of age, is a broken
bone.
(22) "Shelter care" means a home or other facility
suitable for the safekeeping of a child who is taken into temporary custody
pending investigation and disposition where the circumstances are such that the
child does not need to be kept in secure custody.
(23) "Short-term detention facility" means a facility
established under ORS 419A.050 (3) for holding youths pending further
placement.
(24) "Substitute care" means an out-of-home placement
directly supervised by the office or other agency, including placement in a
foster family home, group home or other child caring institution or facility.
"Substitute care" does not include care in:
(a) A detention facility, forestry camp or youth correction
facility;
(b) A family home which the court has approved as a child's
permanent placement, where a private child caring agency has been appointed
guardian of the child and where the child's care is entirely privately
financed; or
(c) In-home placement subject to conditions or limitations.
(25) "Surrogate" means a person appointed by the
court to protect the right of the child to receive procedural safeguards with
respect to the provision of free appropriate public education.
(26) "Tribal court" means a court with jurisdiction
over child custody proceedings and that is either a Court of Indian Offenses, a
court established and operated under the code of custom of an Indian tribe or
any other administrative body of a tribe that is vested with authority over
child custody proceedings.
(27) "Youth" means a person under 18 years of age who
is alleged to have committed an act that is a violation, or, if done by an
adult would constitute a violation, of a law or ordinance of the United States
or a state, county or city.
(28) "Youth care center" has the meaning given that
term in ORS 420.855.
(29) "Youth offender" means a person at least 12
years of age and under 18 years of age who has been found to be within the
jurisdiction of the juvenile court under ORS 419C.005.
NOTE: Corrects
terminology in (16)(e).
SECTION 117.
ORS 419A.052 is amended to read:
419A.052. (1) Suitable detention facilities shall be of Class I
construction and comply with the State
of Oregon Structural Specialty Code and Fire and Life Safety Code [of the
State Fire Marshal]. In addition, the facilities shall provide:
(a) Sanitary drinking water in living units and dayrooms;
(b) Toilets and washbasins accessible to juveniles in all
housing and activity areas;
(c) At least one shower for every 10 detainees;
(d) A heating system and all equipment required to [insure] ensure healthful and comfortable living and working conditions for
juveniles and staff, and which maintains a temperature no lower than 64
degrees;
(e) Lighting at 20 footcandles density; and
(f) Verbal or mechanical communications from sleeping rooms to
staff.
(2) New or major renovated facilities shall conform to the
requirements of subsection (1) of this section and shall also provide:
(a) That any single sleeping rooms located therein are at least
70 square feet and that any dormitories located therein are at least 50 square
feet per occupant and house no more than five individuals each;
(b) At least one toilet and washbasin for every five detainees;
(c) Corridors of at least six feet in width;
(d) Thirty square feet of dayroom space per child;
(e) Heating units capable of maintaining 68 to 85 degrees
temperature;
(f) Tamper-proof lighting with capability of 20 footcandles;
(g) Air circulation of 10 cubic feet of fresh air per minute,
per occupant;
(h) Sleeping rooms' water valves accessible for staff control;
(i) Rooms provided for classes, library, arts and crafts; and
(j) Indoor and outdoor recreation and exercise areas.
NOTE: Corrects
official titles in (1); corrects grammar in (1)(d).
SECTION 118.
ORS 419A.255 is amended to read:
419A.255. (1) The clerk of the court shall keep a record of
each case, including therein the summons and other process, the petition and
all other papers in the nature of pleadings, motions, orders of the court and
other papers filed with the court, but excluding reports and other material
relating to the child's or youth's history and prognosis. The record of the
case shall be withheld from public inspection but shall be open to inspection
by the child or youth, parent, guardian, court appointed special advocate,
surrogate or a person allowed to intervene in a proceeding involving the child
or youth under ORS 109.119 (1), and their attorneys. The attorneys are entitled
to copies of the record of the case.
(2) Reports and other material relating to the child's or
youth's history and prognosis are privileged and, except at the request of the
child or youth, shall not be disclosed directly or indirectly to anyone other
than the judge of the juvenile court, those acting under the judge's direction,
service providers in the case and [to]
the attorneys of record for the child or youth or the child's or youth's
parent, guardian, court appointed special advocate, surrogate or person allowed
to intervene in a proceeding involving the child or youth under ORS 109.119
(1). Reports and other material relating to a youth offender's history and
prognosis in cases under ORS 419C.005 may be disclosed to law enforcement
agencies. The service providers in the case, law enforcement agencies and
attorneys are entitled to examine and obtain copies of any reports or other
material relating to the child's or youth's history and prognosis. Any service
provider in the case, law enforcement agency or attorney who examines or
obtains copies of such reports or materials is responsible for preserving their
confidentiality and shall return the copies to the court upon the conclusion of
the service provider's, law enforcement agency's or attorney's involvement in
the case.
(3) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (7) of this
section, no information appearing in the record of the case or in reports or
other material relating to the child's or youth's history or prognosis may be
disclosed to any person not described in subsection (2) of this section without
the consent of the court, except for purposes of evaluating the child's or
youth's eligibility for special education as provided in ORS chapter 343, and
no such information may be used in evidence in any proceeding to establish
criminal or civil liability against the child or youth, whether such proceeding
occurs after the child or youth has reached 18 years of age or otherwise,
except for the following purposes:
(a) In connection with a presentence investigation after the
guilt of the youth has been admitted or established in a criminal court.
(b) In connection with a proceeding in another juvenile court
concerning the child or youth or an appeal from the juvenile court.
(4) If the court finds that the child or youth or parent is
without financial means to purchase all or a necessary part of the transcript
of the evidence or proceedings, the court shall order upon motion the
transcript or part thereof to be furnished. The transcript or part thereof
furnished under this subsection shall be paid for in the same manner as
furnished transcripts are paid for in criminal cases.
(5) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the following
are not confidential and not exempt from disclosure:
(a) The name and date of birth of the child or youth;
(b) The basis for the juvenile court's jurisdiction over the
child or youth;
(c) The date, time and place of any juvenile court proceeding
in which the child or youth is involved;
(d) The act alleged in the petition that if committed by an
adult would constitute a crime if jurisdiction is based on ORS 419C.005;
(e) That portion of the juvenile court order providing for the
legal disposition of the child or youth where jurisdiction is based on ORS
419B.100 (1)(g) or 419C.005;
(f) The names and addresses of the youth's parents or
guardians; and
(g) The register described in ORS 7.020.
(6) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, when a youth
has been taken into custody under ORS 419C.080, the following information shall
be disclosed unless, and only for so long as, there is a clear need to delay
disclosure in the course of a specific investigation, including the need to
protect the complaining party or the victim:
(a) The youth's name and age and whether the youth is employed
or in school;
(b) The youth offense for which the youth was taken into custody;
(c) The name and age of the adult complaining party and the
adult victim, unless the disclosure of such information is otherwise prohibited
or restricted;
(d) The identity of the investigating and arresting agency; and
(e) The time and place that the youth was taken into custody
and whether there was resistance, pursuit or a weapon used in taking the youth
into custody.
(7)(a) Information contained in reports and other materials
relating to a child's or youth's history and prognosis that, in the
professional judgment of the juvenile counselor, caseworker, teacher or
detention worker to whom the information for the reports or other materials has
been provided, indicates a clear and immediate danger to another person or to
society shall be disclosed to the appropriate authority and the person or
entity who is in danger from the child or youth.
(b) An agency or a person who discloses information under
paragraph (a) of this subsection shall have immunity from any liability, civil
or criminal, that might otherwise be incurred or imposed for making the
disclosure.
(c) Nothing in this subsection affects the provisions of ORS
146.750, 146.760, 419B.035, 419B.040 and 419B.045. The disclosure of
information under this section does not make the information admissible in any
court or administrative proceeding if it is not otherwise admissible.
(8) A county juvenile department is the agency responsible for
disclosing youth offender records and records relating to nonadjudicated youths
if the records are subject to disclosure.
NOTE: Corrects
syntax in (2).
SECTION 119.
ORS 419B.365 is amended to read:
419B.365. (1) At any time following establishment of
jurisdiction and wardship under ORS 419B.100, but prior to filing of a petition
under ORS 419B.500, the court may hear a petition for permanent guardianship.
If the state chooses not to participate in a proceeding initiated by an
intervenor under ORS 419B.115, the state is not foreclosed from filing a
subsequent action should the intervenor's petition be denied.
(2) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the juvenile
court shall hear the permanent guardianship case and follow the procedures in
ORS chapter 125.
(3) The court shall appoint as a guardian a suitable person who
has petitioned the court to be appointed permanent guardian of the child and
who has standing under ORS 419B.115.
(4) The grounds for granting a permanent guardianship are the
same as those for termination of parental rights.
(5) The court shall grant a permanent guardianship if it finds
by clear and convincing evidence that:
(a) The grounds cited in the petition are true; and
(b) It is in the best interest of the child that the parent
never have physical custody of the child but that other parental rights and
duties should not be terminated.
(6) A person appointed permanent guardian has the duties and
authority of a guardian appointed under ORS chapter 125. The annual report
requirement in ORS 125.325 applies to a permanent guardianship granted under
this section.
(7) Upon its own motion or that of a parent, the child or the
guardian, the court granting the guardianship may at any time enter orders
regarding contact, [visitation] parenting time and child support when
the orders are appropriate and in the best interest of the child. The court may
modify or enforce the orders only if the party seeking modification or
enforcement has participated or attempted to participate, in good faith, in mediation
to resolve the dispute that is the basis of the modification or enforcement
motion. The participation or attempted participation in mediation must have
occurred prior to filing the motion for modification or enforcement. The court
may require a person filing a motion under this subsection to pay a reasonable
filing fee.
(8) A parent may not petition the court to terminate a
guardianship once the guardianship is granted under this section.
NOTE: Corrects
terminology in (7).
SECTION 120.
ORS 419C.250 is amended to read:
419C.250. (1) The state, acting through the district attorney,
Attorney General or, when authorized by the district attorney, the juvenile
department counselor, may file a
petition alleging that a youth is within the jurisdiction of the court as
provided in ORS 419C.005.
(2) At any time after a petition is filed, the court may make
an order providing for the temporary custody of the youth.
(3) The petition and all subsequent court documents in the
proceeding shall be entitled, "In the Matter of ______, a youth." The
petition shall be in writing and verified upon the information and belief of
the petitioner.
NOTE: Corrects
punctuation in (1).
SECTION 121.
ORS 426.500 is amended to read:
426.500. For the purpose of carrying out the policy and intent
of ORS 426.490 to 426.500, the Mental Health and Developmental Disability
Services Division of the Department of Human Resources shall:
(1) Adopt rules for the administration of ORS 426.490 to
426.500;
(2) Prepare a written discharge plan for each chronically
mentally ill person who is a patient at a state mental institution or who is
committed to the division pursuant to ORS 426.005 to 426.223 and 426.241 to
426.380;
(3) [Insure] Ensure that case managers are provided
for each chronically mentally ill person described in subsection (2) of this
section; and
(4) Disburse from any available funds:
(a) Funds for one LINC model in the area served by F. H.
Dammasch State Hospital and one LINC model in the area served by the Oregon
State Hospital licensed under ORS 443.415;
(b) Discretionary funds for services necessary to implement a
discharge plan, including but not limited to transportation, medication,
recreation and socialization; and
(c) Funds to provide day treatment services, community
psychiatric inpatient services, and work activity services for chronically
mentally ill persons where needed.
NOTE: Corrects
grammar and inserts appropriate conjunction in (3).
SECTION 122.
ORS 430.705 is amended to read:
430.705. The State of Oregon, through the State Office for
Services to Children and Families [created
under chapter 401, Oregon Laws 1971], may establish the necessary
facilities and provide comprehensive mental health services for children
throughout the state. These services may include, but not be limited to the
prevention of mental illness, and the prevention, treatment and restoration of
emotionally disturbed, mentally ill and drug-dependent children.
NOTE: Deletes
obsolete provision.
SECTION 123. ORS 431.275 and 431.280 are repealed.
NOTE: Repeals
obsolete statutes.
SECTION 124.
ORS 446.260 is amended to read:
446.260. (1) Every manufacturer of manufactured homes offered
for sale or lease in this state shall furnish notification of any defect in any
manufactured home produced by the manufacturer that the manufacturer
determines, in good faith, relates to a federal manufactured housing
construction or safety standard or [contains
a defect that] constitutes an imminent safety hazard to the purchaser of
the manufactured home, within a reasonable time after such manufacturer has
discovered the defect.
(2) The Director of the Department of Consumer and Business
Services is authorized to adopt rules for notification required by subsection
(1) of this section. The rules shall conform to notification and correction of
defects and record keeping requirements of the Secretary of Housing and Urban
Development under the National Manufactured Housing Construction and Safety
Standards Act of 1974 (Public Law 93-383).
(3)(a) In addition to the notification required under
subsection (1) of this section, the director may adopt rules to identify the
disclosures required of a dealer or distributor prior to the sale of new
manufactured structures more than eight feet six inches wide in travel mode.
Disclosure required under this subsection shall be limited to information
regarding permissible uses, roof snow loads and anchoring of manufactured
structures.
(b) The Department of Consumer and Business Services shall
develop and make available to all dealers and distributors of manufactured
structures a standard disclosure. The disclosure shall be completed in writing
by the dealer or distributor of any affected manufactured structure prior to
sale. A completed disclosure shall be presented to the purchaser for signature
at the time of sale and a copy of the signed disclosure provided to the
purchaser. The signed disclosure shall be retained by the dealer or distributor
for not less than five years following the date of sale.
NOTE: Corrects
syntax in (1).
SECTION 125.
ORS 448.005 is amended to read:
448.005. As used in ORS 448.005 to 448.090, unless the context
requires otherwise:
(1) "Assistant
director" means the Assistant Director for Health.
[(1)] (2) "Bathhouse" means a
structure [which] that contains dressing rooms, showers
and toilet facilities for use with an adjacent public swimming pool.
[(2)] (3) "Division" means the
Health Division of the Department of Human Resources.
[(3) "Assistant
director" means the Assistant Director for Health of the Department of
Human Resources.]
(4) "Person" [includes,
in addition to the definition] has
the meaning given that term in ORS 174.100, but also includes municipalities, recreation districts, counties
and state agencies or instrumentalities.
(5) "Public spa
pool" means a public swimming pool or wading pool designed primarily to
direct water or air-enriched water under pressure onto the bather's body with
the intent of producing a relaxing or therapeutic effect.
[(5)] (6) "Public swimming pool"
means an artificial structure, and its appurtenances, [which] that contains
water more than two feet deep, [which] is expressly designated or [which is] used with the knowledge and
consent of the owner or operator for swimming or recreational bathing, and [which] is for the use of any segment of the public. "Public
swimming pool" includes, but is not limited to, swimming pools owned or
operated by:
(a) Travelers' accommodations;
(b) Recreation parks;
(c) Colleges;
(d) Schools;
(e) Organizational camps as defined in ORS 446.310;
(f) Clubs;
(g) Associations;
(h) Business establishments for their patrons or employees;
(i) Private persons and that are open to the public;
(j) Recreation districts;
(k) Municipalities;
(L) Counties; or
(m) A state agency.
[(6) "Public spa
pool" means a public swimming pool or wading pool designed primarily to
direct water or air-enriched water under pressure onto the bather's body with
the intent of producing a relaxing or therapeutic effect.]
(7) "Public wading pool" means an artificial
structure, and its appurtenances, [which]
that contains water less than two
feet deep, [which] is expressly designated or [which is] used with the knowledge and consent of the owner or
operator for wading or recreational bathing,
and [which] is for the use of any
segment of the public, whether limited to patrons of a companion facility or
not.
(8) "Recreation park" means those facilities as
defined by ORS 446.310.
(9) "Travelers' accommodation" means those facilities
as defined by ORS 446.310.
(10) "Variance" means written permission from the
division for a public swimming pool, public spa pool or public wading pool to
be operated when it does not comply with all the applicable rules for public
swimming pools, public spa pools or public wading pools.
NOTE: Conforms
structure of statute to legislative form and style; corrects grammar and
syntax.
SECTION 126.
ORS 448.115 is amended to read:
448.115. As used in ORS 448.115 to 448.285, 454.235 and 454.255
unless the context requires otherwise:
(1) "Assistant
director" means the Assistant Director for Health.
[(1)] (2) "Connection" means the
connection between a water system and a customer [which] that enables the
customer to receive potable water from the system.
[(2)] (3) "Construction standards"
means criteria for constructing or installing water system facilities.
(4) "Division"
means the Health Division of the Department of Human Resources.
[(3)] (5) "Emergency" means a
condition resulting from an unusual calamity such as a flood, an earthquake or
an accidental spill of hazardous material [which]
that can endanger the quality of the
water produced by a water system.
[(4)] (6) "Operational
requirements" means requirements [which]
that prescribe the manner in which
water systems must be operated.
[(5)] (7) "Permit" means a document
issued to a water system [which] that authorizes it to commence or
continue to operate in the State of Oregon and lists the conditions the system
must meet to continue operating.
[(6)] (8) "Safe drinking water"
means water [which] that is sufficiently free from
biological, chemical, radiological or physical impurities such that individuals
will not be exposed to disease or harmful physiological effects.
[(7)] (9) "Sanitary survey" means
an on-site review of the source, facilities, equipment, operation and
maintenance of a water system, including related land uses, for the purpose of
evaluating the capability of that water system to produce and distribute safe
drinking water.
[(8)] (10) "Special master" means
the person appointed by the court to administrate the water system.
[(9)] (11) "Variance" means
permission from the agency for a water system to provide water [which] that does not meet water quality standards.
[(10)] (12) "Water supplier" means
any person, group of persons, municipality, district, corporation or entity [which] that owns or operates a water system.
[(11)] (13) "Water system" means a
system for the provision of piped water for human consumption.
[(12)] (14) "Waterborne disease"
means disease caused by chemical, physical, radiological or biological agents
epidemiologically associated with infection, illness or disability [which] that is transported to human beings by water [which] that has been
ingested or through contact as in bathing or other domestic uses.
NOTE: Inserts
appropriate definitions; corrects grammar.
SECTION 127.
ORS 455.190 is amended to read:
455.190. (1)(a) Under ORS 183.325 to 183.410, notwithstanding
any other laws or rules to the contrary, the Department of Consumer and
Business Services, with the concurrence of the appropriate board, shall
establish:
(A) Qualifications and standards for special alternative
inspection programs for commercial or industrial installations for other than
new construction; and
(B) Delegation of special alternative inspection programs
except as provided in subsections (3) and (5) of this section.
(b) Special alternative inspection programs established under
this section apply to inspections under the structural, mechanical and plumbing
specialty codes.
(2) For purposes of this section, special alternative
inspection programs include:
(a) A program of random inspections of minor installations; and
(b) A master permit program [where] under which
installations are periodically inspected.
(3) Any municipality that wishes to establish a structural or
mechanical special alternative inspection program shall first make application
to the department. The department may authorize the municipality to administer
and enforce the provisions of this section if it finds that the municipality
can comply with minimum standards and meet the qualifications adopted under
subsection (1) of this section for inspections, permit applications and other
matters to [insure] ensure adequate administration and
enforcement of the structural, mechanical or plumbing special alternative
inspection programs.
(4) Notwithstanding the provisions of ORS 455.160, a
municipality that is authorized to administer and enforce a special alternative
inspection program may, in exercising that authority, waive plan review and
related fees of an installation carried out under structural, mechanical,
plumbing and electrical master permits.
(5) Any municipality that provides plumbing inspections under
the plumbing specialty code shall provide a program of random inspection of
minor installations and a master permit program. If the municipality does not
elect to provide a plumbing master permit program as provided in subsection (1)
of this section, the municipality shall, on request of the owner, operating
manager or plumbing contractor of a commercial or industrial facility that
would otherwise qualify for a master permit program, issue a master individual
inspection permit, provide plumbing inspection before any installation is
covered or placed into service and charge for the inspection at the
municipality's hourly plumbing inspection rate under the plumbing specialty
code.
NOTE: Corrects word
choice in (2)(b) and (3).
SECTION 128.
ORS 455.525 is amended to read:
455.525. (1) In the manner provided in ORS 183.310 to 183.550
for the adoption of rules and after consideration of available technology and
costs, the Building Codes Structures Board shall establish basic and uniform
performance standards to provide maximum energy conservation and use of passive
solar energy in the design, construction, reconstruction, alteration and repair
of buildings and other structures. Such standards shall be submitted to the
Director of the Department of Consumer and Business Services for proposed
inclusion in the state building code as provided by ORS 455.030 (4).
(2) Any testing requirements adopted under subsection (1) of
this section do not apply to fenestration products that are for use within
residential structures if the fenestration products are:
(a) Used in the creation of sunrooms and solariums and
constructed with a minimum of a one-half inch space between the panes; or
(b) Fenestration products used as skylights that constitute no
more than 10 percent of the total glazing used in any dwelling unit.
(3) The board and the director shall jointly adopt by rule
default thermal performance values for residential fenestration products that
are produced in low volume. Any testing requirements adopted under subsection
(1) of this section or ORS 455.020 or 455.030 do not apply to residential
fenestration products that are produced in low volume.
(4) Fenestration products manufactured for use as skylights
that are subject to the provisions of subsection (1) of this section and have
frames that are wood, thermal break aluminum or aluminum with vinyl shall be
deemed to meet any performance standards included in the state building code
when the following glazing configurations are used:
(a) A minimum one-half inch space between the panes and low-e
(emissivity) glass; or
(b) [Tripled layered]
Triple-layered acrylic.
(5) Regulations relating to the use and conservation of energy
adopted pursuant to ORS 455.020 (2) shall be reviewed by the board.
NOTE: Corrects
terminology in (4)(b).
SECTION 129.
ORS 456.515 is amended to read:
456.515. As used in ORS 456.515 to 456.725 and ORS chapter 458 unless
the context requires otherwise:
(1) "Community Action Directors of Oregon" means an
organization described in ORS 458.505.
(2) "Construction" includes, but is not limited to,
new construction or moderate or substantial rehabilitation of existing
structures or facilities.
(3) "Council" means the State Housing Council
established under ORS 456.567.
(4) "Department" means the Housing and Community
Services Department established under ORS 456.555.
(5) "Director" means the Director of the Housing and Community Services
Department.
(6) "Disabled person" means a person who has a
physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life
activities.
(7) "Elderly household" means a household whose head
is over the age of 58, residing in this state, who cannot obtain in the open
market decent, safe and sanitary housing, including the costs of utilities and
taxes, for 25 percent of the gross income of the household.
(8) "Major life activity" includes but is not limited
to self-care, ambulation, communication, transportation, education,
socialization, employment and ability to acquire, rent or maintain property.
(9)(a) "Multifamily housing" means a structure or
facility established primarily to provide housing that provides more than one
living unit, and may also provide facilities that are functionally related and
subordinate to the living units for use by the occupants in social, health,
educational or recreational activities:
(A) For the elderly, including but not limited to individual
living units within such structures, mobile home and manufactured dwelling
parks and residential facilities licensed under ORS 443.400 to 443.455 and
other congregate care facilities with or without domiciliary care.
(B) For disabled persons, including, but not limited to,
individual living units within such structures, mobile home and manufactured
dwelling parks and residential facilities licensed under ORS 443.400 to 443.455
and other congregate care facilities with or without domiciliary care.
(b) "Multifamily housing" does not include nursing
homes, hospitals, places primarily engaged in recreational activities and
single-family, detached dwellings, except manufactured dwellings situated in a
mobile home and manufactured dwelling park.
(10) "Target population" means:
(a) Elderly households; or
(b) Disabled persons.
NOTE: Sets forth
official title in (5).
SECTION 130.
ORS 459A.120 is amended to read:
459A.120. (1) Except as provided in ORS 459A.115, the fees
established by the Environmental Quality Commission under ORS 459A.110 shall be
deposited in the General Fund and credited to an account of the Department of
Environmental Quality. Such moneys are continuously appropriated to the
department to carry out the purposes set forth in subsection (2) of this
section.
(2) The fees collected under ORS 459A.110 shall be used only
for the following purposes:
(a) [To implement] Implementation of the provisions of ORS
459.411 to 459.417.
(b) Department of Environmental Quality programs to promote and
enhance waste reduction and recycling statewide, including data collection,
performance measurement, education and promotion, market development and
demonstration projects.
(c) Department of Environmental Quality activities for ground
water monitoring and enforcement of ground water protection standards at
disposal sites that receive domestic solid waste.
(d) Solid waste planning activities by counties and the
metropolitan service district, as approved by the department, including
planning for special waste disposal, planning for closure of solid waste
disposal sites, capacity planning for domestic solid waste and regional solid
waste planning.
(e) Grants to local government units for recycling and solid
waste planning activities.
(f) [To pay] Payment of administrative costs
incurred by the department in accomplishing the purposes set forth in this
section. The amount allocated under this paragraph shall not exceed 10 percent
of the fees generated under ORS 459A.110.
NOTE: Corrects word
choice in (2)(a) and (f).
SECTION 131.
ORS 462.020 is amended to read:
462.020. (1) No person shall hold any race meet without having
first obtained and having in full force and effect a license therefor issued by
the Oregon Racing Commission.
(2) No trainer, driver, jockey, apprentice jockey, horse owner,
dog owner, exercise [boy] person, agent, authorized agent,
jockey's agent, stable foreman, groom, valet, veterinarian, horseshoer,
steward, stable [watchman] guard, starter, timer, judge or other
person acting as a participant or official at any race meet, including all
employees of the pari-mutuel department, shall participate in race meets
without having first obtained and having in full force and effect a license
issued by the commission, pursuant to such rules as the commission shall make.
The commission by rule may require other employees of a race meet licensee who
are engaged in or performing duties at the race course to obtain a license
issued by the commission prior to engaging or performing such duties. The commission
by rule may also require persons, including corporations, who are not employees
of a race meet licensee, but who are authorized to do business at the race
course, to obtain a license issued by the commission prior to conducting such
business.
(3) No person shall operate a public training track or public
kennel for greyhounds participating in a race meet without having first
obtained and having in full force and effect a license issued by the
commission.
(4) The commission may require each licensee to be
fingerprinted and photographed as part of the licensing procedure.
(5) Each person holding a license under this chapter shall
comply with all rules and orders of the commission.
(6) Notwithstanding the requirements of subsection (2) of this
section, the commission, upon receipt of a written application for a license on
forms provided by the commission, may in its sound discretion issue a temporary
license valid for a period not to exceed 10 days pending final approval or
disapproval of the written application for a license.
NOTE: Deletes
gender-specific language in (2).
SECTION 132.
ORS 465.505 is amended to read:
465.505. (1) In addition to any other applicable federal or
state law and regulation, the following waste minimization measures shall apply
to dry cleaning facilities:
(a) All wastes, excluding wastewater, generated at any dry
cleaning facility and containing dry cleaning solvents, including residues and
filters, shall be managed, regardless of quantity generated, as hazardous
wastes in accordance with federal and state laws otherwise applicable to
management of hazardous wastes, except that, as to the cleanup of releases of
dry cleaning solvents, ORS 465.503 shall apply rather than ORS 466.205;
(b) [Beginning three
years after June 30, 1995,] Wastewater from dry cleaning machines shall not
be discharged to any sanitary sewer or septic tank or to the waters of this
state;
(c) [Beginning three
years after June 30, 1995,] No dry cleaning facility shall include
operation of transfer-type dry cleaning equipment using perchloroethylene;
(d) [Beginning on June
30, 1995,] All newly installed dry cleaning systems using perchloroethylene
shall be of the dry-to-dry type and be equipped with integral refrigerated
condensers for the control of perchloroethylene emissions;
(e) [Within three years
from June 30, 1995,] All existing dry cleaning systems using
perchloroethylene shall install refrigerated condensers or an equivalent;
(f) [Within three years
from June 30, 1995,] Every dry cleaning facility shall install containment
tanks capable of containing any leak, spill or release of dry cleaning solvent
under and around each machine or item of equipment in which any dry cleaning
solvent is used; and
(g) [Beginning three
years after June 30, 1995,] All perchloroethylene dry cleaning solvent
shall be delivered to dry cleaning facilities by means of closed,
direct-coupled delivery systems.
(2) The Department of Environmental Quality may authorize the
use of alternative measures at a dry cleaning facility in lieu of one or more
of the measures described under subsection (1) of this section upon proof
satisfactory to the department that the alternative measures can provide
equivalent protection for public health and the environment, can achieve
equivalent waste minimization and are consistent with other applicable laws and
regulations.
(3) [Beginning] Annually on March 1, [1997, and annually thereafter,] every
dry cleaning operator shall provide to the department, on forms to be supplied
by the department, information regarding compliance with the waste minimization
measures set forth in subsection (1) of this section and any other information
as the department considers necessary for carrying out the purposes of ORS
465.200 and 465.500 to 465.545.
(4) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, [upon June 30, 1995,] any release of dry
cleaning solvents exceeding one pound shall be immediately reported to the
department by the dry cleaning operator for the facility having the release.
(5) The Environmental Quality Commission is authorized to adopt
rules necessary to implement ORS 465.200 and 465.500 to 465.545, including but
not limited to rules implementing the recommendations of the advisory group
established under ORS 465.507 or requiring the implementation of new waste
minimization technologies.
NOTE: Deletes
obsolete provisions.
SECTION 133.
ORS 465.507 is amended to read:
465.507. (1) [Within 180
days after June 30, 1995,] The Director of the Department of Environmental
Quality shall appoint an advisory group comprised of members representing a
balance of at least the following interests:
(a) Dry cleaning operators;
(b) Dry cleaning industry members other than operators;
(c) Citizens;
(d) Environmental organizations; and
(e) Local governments.
(2) The advisory group shall meet periodically to review and
advise the Department of Environmental Quality regarding:
(a) Methods and standards for removal and remedial actions as
applied by the department at dry cleaning facilities;
(b) Waste minimization and other requirements as applied to dry
cleaning facilities, including new technologies and industry practices;
(c) The department's use of the Dry Cleaner Environmental
Response Account, including use at multiple-source sites;
(d) The adequacy of revenue generated by fees assessed under
ORS 465.517 to 465.523 for meeting the costs of removal and remedial actions at
dry cleaning facilities; and
(e) Any other matters pertinent to the purposes of ORS 465.200
and 465.500 to 465.545.
[(3) The department shall
report to the Seventieth Legislative Assembly regarding implementation of ORS
465.200 and 465.500 to 465.545. The report shall include any recommendations
for amendment of ORS 465.200 and 465.500 to 465.545 considered necessary by the
department to ensure the adequate and timely cleanup of contamination at dry
cleaning facilities.]
NOTE: Deletes
obsolete provisions.
SECTION 134.
ORS 465.523 is amended to read:
465.523. (1) In addition to any other tax or fee imposed by
law, a fee is imposed on the use of dry cleaning solvent at a dry cleaning
facility within this state if:
(a) The purchaser or transferee of the solvent did not receive
a bill or invoice showing the correct fee imposed under ORS 465.520 on the
retail sale or transfer; or
(b) No fee was paid with respect to the retail sale or transfer
and the purchaser or transferee had reason to believe that no fee would be
paid.
(2) The fee imposed by this section equals the fee that should
have been imposed on the retail sale or transfer of the dry cleaning solvent by
ORS 465.520 less the fee, if any, shown on the bill or invoice.
[(3) This section shall
not apply to dry cleaning solvent assessed a fee under section 12, chapter 427,
Oregon Laws 1995.]
NOTE: Deletes
obsolete provision.
SECTION 135. ORS 468.068 is added to and made a part of
ORS chapter 468B.
NOTE: Adds statute
to appropriate series.
SECTION 136.
ORS 468.150 is amended to read:
468.150. After alternative methods for field sanitation and
straw utilization and disposal are approved by [the committee and] the Department of Environmental Quality, "pollution control facility,"
as defined in ORS 468.155, shall include such approved alternative methods and
persons purchasing and utilizing such methods shall be eligible for the
benefits allowed by ORS 468.155 to 468.190.
NOTE: Deletes
obsolete provision; sets forth official title.
SECTION 137.
ORS 468.225 is amended to read:
468.225. All [undistributed
bond funds and revenues received as payment upon] amounts that are treated as gross proceeds of agency bonds or other
obligations, if invested, shall be invested [to produce an adjusted yield not exceeding the limitations imposed by
section 103, subsection (d) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, and
amendments thereto in effect on March 1, 1971] in compliance with section 148 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986,
and the amendments thereto in effect on the effective date of this 1999 Act.
NOTE: Revises
obsolete provisions; corrects syntax.
SECTION 138. ORS 468.501 and 468.503 are added to and
made a part of ORS 468.506 to 468.521.
NOTE: Adds statutes
to appropriate series.
SECTION 139.
ORS 468A.098 is amended to read:
468A.098. (1) The Environmental Quality Commission shall act on
an application for certification before the 120th day after the filing of the
application under ORS 468A.096. The action of the commission shall include
certification of the actual cost of the technologies or processes resulting in
the elimination of emissions regulated under 40 CFR 63.320 to 63.325, 63.340 to
63.347 or 63.460 to 63.469. The actual cost certified shall not exceed the
taxpayer's own cash investment in the technologies or processes. The amount of
the actual cost certified for all technologies or processes installed in any
taxable year at a single business location shall not exceed $75,000.
(2) If the commission rejects an application for certification,
or certifies a lesser actual cost of the technologies or processes than was
claimed in the application for certification, the commission shall cause
written notice of its action, and a concise statement of the findings and
reasons therefor, to be sent by registered or certified mail to the applicant
before the 120th day after the filing of the application.
(3) If the application is rejected for any reason other than
achievement of the program limitation imposed under subsection (7) of this
section, including the information furnished by the applicant as to the cost of
the technologies or processes, or if the applicant is dissatisfied with the
certification of technology or process actual cost, the applicant may appeal
the rejection as provided in ORS 468.110. The rejection of the certification is
final and conclusive on all parties unless the applicant takes an appeal
therefrom as provided in ORS 468.110 before the 30th day after notice was
mailed by the commission.
(4)(a) The commission shall certify the cost of technologies or
processes for which an application has been made under ORS 468A.096, if the
commission finds that the technologies or processes:
(A) Were installed in accordance with the requirements of ORS
468A.096 (1); and
(B) Further the intents and purposes of 40 CFR 63.320 to
63.325, 63.340 to 63.347 or 63.460 to 63.469.
(b) No determination of the actual cost of the technologies or
processes to be certified shall be made until receipt of the application.
(c) The commission may certify the cost of more than one
technology or process at a location under one certificate. A certificate under
this section is effective for purposes of tax relief in accordance with ORS
315.311 if the technologies or processes were installed on or after January 1,
1996, and on or before December 31, 1999.
(5) If the person receiving the certificate is a partnership,
each partner shall be entitled to take tax credit relief beginning with the tax
year following the tax year of certification as provided in ORS [315.304] 315.311, based on that partner's pro rata share of the certified
cost of the technology or process as determined by the partner's pro rata share
of the business that installed the technology or process.
(6) Certification under this section shall be granted for a
period of five consecutive years beginning with the tax year of the person in
which the technology or process is certified under this section.
(7) The total actual cost certified for all projects completed
on or after January 1, 1996, and on or before December 31, 1999, shall not
exceed $5,200,000.
NOTE: Corrects ORS
reference in (5).
SECTION 140. Section 141 of this 1999 Act is added to
and made a part of ORS 469.800 to 469.845.
NOTE: Adds new
provision to appropriate series.
SECTION 141. As used in ORS 469.800 to 469.845,
"council" means the Pacific Northwest Electric Power and Conservation
Planning Council.
NOTE: Sets forth
official title definition for series.
SECTION 142.
ORS 471.253 is amended to read:
471.253. (1) A brewery-public house license shall allow the
licensee:
(a) To manufacture annually on the licensed premises, store,
transport, sell to wholesale malt beverage and wine licensees of the Oregon
Liquor Control Commission and export malt beverages;
(b) To sell malt beverages manufactured on or off the licensed
premises at retail for consumption on or off the premises;
(c) To sell malt beverages in brewery-sealed packages at retail
directly to the consumer for consumption off the premises;
(d) To sell on the licensed premises at retail malt beverages
manufactured on or off the licensed premises in unpasteurized or pasteurized
form directly to the consumer for consumption off the premises, delivery of
which may be made in a securely covered container supplied by the consumer;
(e) To sell wine and cider containing not more than 21 percent
alcohol by weight at retail for consumption on or off the premises; and
(f) To conduct the activities described in paragraphs (b) to
(e) of this subsection at one location other than the premises where the
manufacturing occurs.
(2) A brewery-public house licensee, or any person having an
interest in the licensee, is a retail licensee for the purposes of ORS 471.394
and, except as otherwise provided by this section and ORS 471.396, may not
acquire or hold any right, title, lien, claim or other interest, financial or
otherwise, in, upon or to the premises, equipment, business or merchandise of
any manufacturer or wholesaler, as defined in ORS 471.392. A brewery-public
house licensee, or any person having an interest in the licensee, is also a
manufacturer for the purposes of ORS 471.398 and, except as otherwise provided
by this section and ORS 471.400, may not acquire or hold any right, title,
lien, claim or other interest, financial or otherwise, in, upon or to the
premises, equipment, business or merchandise of any other retail licensee, as
defined in ORS 471.392.
(3) A brewery-public house licensee, or any person having an
interest in the licensee, is a retail licensee for the purposes of ORS 471.398
and, except as otherwise provided by this section and ORS 471.400, may not
accept directly or indirectly any financial assistance described in ORS 471.398
from any manufacturer or wholesaler, as defined in ORS 471.392. A
brewery-public house licensee, or any person having an interest in the
licensee, is also a manufacturer for the purposes of ORS 471.398 and, except as
otherwise provided by this section and ORS 471.400, may not provide directly or
indirectly any financial assistance described in ORS 471.398 to any retail
licensee, as defined in ORS 471.392. The prohibitions on financial assistance
in ORS 471.398 do not apply to financial assistance between manufacturing and
retail businesses licensed to the same person under the provisions of this
section.
(4) Notwithstanding subsection (2) of this section, a
brewery-public house licensee, or any person having an interest in the
licensee, may also hold a winery license authorized by ORS 471.223. A
brewery-public house licensee, or any person having an interest in the
licensee, may also hold a warehouse license authorized by ORS 471.242.
(5) Notwithstanding subsection (2) of this section, a brewery-public
house licensee is eligible for a retail malt beverage license and for special
one-day retail beer and wine licenses.
(6)(a) Notwithstanding subsection (2) of this section, and
except as provided by paragraph (b) of this subsection, a brewery-public house
licensee, or any person having an interest in the licensee, may also hold a
dispenser license issued under ORS chapter 472. If a person holds both a
brewery-public house license and a dispenser license, nothing in this chapter
shall prevent the sale by the licensee of both distilled liquor and malt
beverages manufactured under the brewery-public house license.
(b) The commission may not issue a dispenser license to a
brewery-public house licensee under the provisions of this subsection if the
brewery-public house licensee, or any person having an interest in the licensee
or exercising control over the licensee, is a brewery that brews more than
200,000 barrels of malt beverages annually or a winery that produces more than
200,000 gallons of wine annually.
(c) The commission may not issue a dispenser license to a
brewery-public house licensee under the provisions of this subsection if the
brewery-public house licensee, or any person having an interest in the licensee
or exercising control over the licensee, is a distillery, unless the distillery
produces only pot distilled liquor and produces no more than 12,000 gallons of
pot distilled liquor annually.
(7) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, a
brewery-public house licensee, or any person having an interest in the
licensee, may also hold a distillery license if the licensee produces only pot
distilled liquor, and produces no more than 12,000 gallons of pot distilled
liquor annually. No provision of this chapter prevents a brewery-public house
licensee from becoming a retail sales agent of the commission for the purpose
of selling distilled liquors.
(8) Notwithstanding subsection (2) of this section, the
commission by rule may authorize a brewery-public house licensee to co-produce
special events with other manufacturers.
(9)(a) Notwithstanding subsection (2) of this section, a
brewery-public house licensee may hold, directly or indirectly, an interest in
a manufacturer or wholesaler, provided that the interest does not result in
exercise of control over, or participation in the management of, the
manufacturer's or wholesaler's business or business decisions and does not
result in exclusion of any competitor's brand of alcoholic liquor.
(b) Notwithstanding subsection [(3)] (2) of this
section, a manufacturer or wholesaler, and any officer, director or substantial
stockholder of any corporate manufacturer or wholesaler, may hold, directly or
indirectly, an interest in a brewery-public house licensee, provided that the
interest does not result in exercise of control over, or participation in the
management of, the licensee's business or business decisions and does not
result in exclusion of any competitor's brand of alcoholic liquor.
(10) For purposes of ORS chapter 473, a brewery-public house
licensee shall be considered to be a manufacturer.
NOTE: Corrects
internal reference in (9)(b).
SECTION 143.
ORS 472.125 is amended to read:
472.125. A hotel dispenser license may be issued by the Oregon
Liquor Control Commission to a hotel. The hotel need not have a restaurant open
to the general public, but must make food available to its guests. The hotel
must have at least 200 guest rooms and have banquet and meeting facilities for
at least 200 people. Video lottery game terminals may not be placed on premises
licensed under a hotel dispenser license. [Hotel
dispenser licenses are not subject to ORS 472.105.] Except as provided in
this section, a hotel dispenser license has the same privileges, and is subject
to the same restrictions, as a Class A dispenser license.
NOTE: Deletes
reference to repealed statute.
SECTION 144. ORS 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050, 475A.135
and 475A.160 are added to and made a part of ORS chapter 475A.
NOTE: Adds statutes
to appropriate series.
SECTION 145.
ORS 475A.010 is amended to read:
475A.010. (1) The Legislative Assembly finds that:
(a) The prohibited conduct defined in [ORS chapter 475A and ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010,
475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135] this
chapter is undertaken in the course of profitable activities which result
in, and are facilitated by, the acquisition, possession or transfer of property
subject to forfeiture under [ORS chapter
475A and ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050
and 475A.135] this chapter;
(b) Transactions involving property subject to forfeiture under
[ORS chapter 475A and ORS 167.243,
167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135] this chapter escape taxation;
(c) Governments attempting to respond to prohibited conduct
require additional resources to meet their needs; and
(d) There is a need to provide for the forfeiture of certain
property subject to forfeiture under [ORS
chapter 475A and ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040,
475A.050 and 475A.135] this chapter,
to provide for the protection of the rights and interests of affected persons,
and to provide for uniformity throughout the state with respect to the laws of
this state which pertain to the forfeiture of real and personal property based
upon prohibited conduct as defined in [ORS
chapter 475A and ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040,
475A.050 and 475A.135] this chapter.
(2) Therefore, the Legislative Assembly adopts the provisions
of [ORS chapter 475A and ORS 167.243,
167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135] this chapter as the sole and exclusive
law of the state pertaining to the forfeiture of real and personal property
based upon the prohibited conduct, thereby replacing all charter provisions,
ordinances, regulations and other enactments adopted by cities and counties
pertaining to such forfeitures. After July 24, 1989, no actions for forfeiture
shall be initiated except those in compliance with the provisions of [ORS chapter 475A and ORS 167.243, 167.248,
205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135] this chapter.
(3) [ORS chapter 475A and
ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and
475A.135 are] This chapter is
applicable throughout this state and in all cities and counties. The electors
or the governing body of a city or county shall not enact and the governing
body shall not enforce any charter provision, ordinance, resolution or other
regulation that is inconsistent with this section.
(4) [ORS chapter 475A and
ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and
475A.135 do] This chapter does
not impair the right of any city or county to enact ordinances providing for
the forfeiture of property based upon conduct that is other than prohibited
conduct as defined in [ORS chapter 475A
and ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and
475A.135] this chapter if:
(a) The property was used to commit the conduct described in
the ordinances, or is proceeds of the conduct; and
(b) The forfeiture is subject to procedures and limitations set
forth in [ORS chapter 475A and ORS
167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135] this chapter.
(5) Nothing in this [section
or in ORS chapter 475A and ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010,
475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135] chapter
shall be construed to limit or impair any right or remedy that any person or
entity may have under ORS 166.715 to 166.735. The application of any remedy
under [ORS chapter 475A and ORS 167.243,
167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135] this chapter is intended to be remedial
and not punitive and shall not preclude or be precluded by the application of
any previous or subsequent civil or criminal remedy under any other provision
of law. Civil remedies under [ORS chapter
475A and ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050
and 475A.135] this chapter are
supplemental and not mutually exclusive.
NOTE: Inserts
appropriate ORS chapter references; deletes superfluous ORS references.
SECTION 146.
ORS 475A.015 is amended to read:
475A.015. Subject to this chapter [and ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040,
475A.050 and 475A.135], all right, title and interest in property forfeited
under this chapter [and ORS 167.243,
167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135] shall
vest in the forfeiting agency upon commission of the prohibited conduct.
NOTE: Deletes
superfluous ORS references.
SECTION 147.
ORS 475A.035 is amended to read:
475A.035. Property may be seized for forfeiture as provided in
this section.
(1) Any person who delivers property in obedience to an order
or direction to deliver the property under this section shall not be liable:
(a) To any person on account of obedience to the order or
direction; or
(b) For any costs incurred on account of any contamination of
the delivered property. This includes, but is not limited to, any disposal
costs for any property forfeited under ORS 475A.020, any hazardous waste or
material, any contraband or any other contamination contained in property
seized under this section.
(2) Property may be seized by any police officer without a
court order if:
(a) The property has been the subject of an earlier judgment in
favor of any forfeiting agency in an earlier civil in rem proceeding under this
chapter [and ORS 167.243, 167.248,
205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135];
(b) There is probable cause to believe that property is subject
to forfeiture, provided that the property may constitutionally be seized
without a warrant;
(c) The seizure is in the course of a constitutionally valid
criminal investigative stop, arrest or search, and there is probable cause to
believe that the property is subject to forfeiture;
(d) The property is directly or indirectly dangerous to the
health or safety of any person; or
(e) An owner consents to the seizure.
(3) Except as provided in ORS 475A.045, with regard to cash or
other assets which at the time of seizure are held in any form of account in a
financial institution, if the property is in whole or in part intangible, the
person having control or custody of the property shall deliver the same over to
the police officer.
(4)(a) Property may be seized by any police officer pursuant to
an order of the court. Forfeiture counsel or a seizing agency may apply for an
ex parte order directing seizure of specified property.
(b) Application shall be made to any judge as defined in ORS
133.525. The application shall be supported by one or more affidavits setting
forth the facts and circumstances tending to show where the objects of the
seizure are to be found. The court shall issue the order upon a finding of
probable cause to believe that the described property is subject to forfeiture.
The order may be set out on the face of a search warrant.
(c) Except as provided in ORS 475A.045, with regard to cash or
other assets which at the time of seizure are held in any form of account in a
financial institution, if the property is in whole or in part intangible, the
order shall direct any person having control or custody of the property to
deliver the same over to the seizing agency or to the court to abide judgment.
(5) Property may be constructively seized by posting notice of
seizure for forfeiture on it or by filing notice of seizure for forfeiture or
notice of pending forfeiture in the public records that impart constructive
notice of matters relating to such property. A notice which is filed must
include a description of the property that is the subject of the seizure. Real
property, including interests arising out of land sale contracts, shall be
seized only upon recording notice of seizure containing a legal description of
the property in the mortgage records of the county in which the real property
is located.
(6) Property which has been unconstitutionally seized may be
subject to forfeiture if the basis for forfeiture under this chapter [and ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666,
475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135] is sustained by evidence which
is not the fruit of the unconstitutional seizure.
(7) Promptly upon seizure, the officer who seized the property
shall make an inventory of the property seized and shall deliver a receipt
embodying the inventory to the person from whose possession they are taken or
to the person in apparent control of the property at the time it is seized. The
officer may, in addition, provide an estimate of the value of the property
seized and information on the right to file a claim under ORS 475A.055 (2), and
the deadline for filing that claim. If the property is unoccupied or there is
no one present in apparent control, the officer shall leave the receipt
suitably affixed to the property. If the property is physically removed from
the location of seizure and it is unoccupied or there is no one present in
apparent control, then the officer shall promptly file the receipt in the
public records of the forfeiting agency. Every receipt prepared under this
subsection shall contain, in addition to an inventory of the property seized,
the following information:
(a) The identity of the seizing agency; and
(b) The address and telephone number of the office or other
place where the person may obtain further information concerning the
forfeiture.
(8) In determining probable cause or reasonable suspicion for
seizure, evidence that cash, weapons or negotiable instruments were found in
close proximity to controlled substances or to instrumentalities of prohibited
conduct gives rise to an inference that the cash, weapons or negotiable
instruments are subject to forfeiture. This inference is sufficient in itself
to carry the forfeiting agency's initial burden under ORS 475A.080.
(9) In the event that property is seized from the possession of
a person who asserts a possessory lien over such property pursuant to
applicable law, notwithstanding any other provision of law, any lien of the
person from whom the property was seized shall remain in effect and shall be
enforceable as fully as though the person had retained possession of the
property.
NOTE: Deletes
superfluous ORS references in (2)(a) and (6).
SECTION 148.
ORS 475A.045 is amended to read:
475A.045. (1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in this chapter [and ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666,
475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135], property seized for forfeiture
is not subject to replevin, conveyance, sequestration or attachment, nor is it
subject to a motion or order to return under ORS chapter 133. The seizure of
property or the commencement of a forfeiture proceeding pursuant to this
chapter [and ORS 167.243, 167.248,
205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135] shall not
abate, impede or in any way delay the initiation or prosecution of a suit or
action by a financial institution for the possession of seized property in
which the financial institution has or purports to have a lien or security
interest or for the foreclosure of such lien or security interest. A financial
institution may proceed with any suit or action involving property in which it
has a lien or security interest even though a seizure has occurred and
forfeiture proceedings have been or will be commenced. Any such suit or action
may be consolidated with the forfeiture proceeding for the purpose of trial. If
property which may be subject to forfeiture is sold prior to the conclusion of
the forfeiture proceedings, the sheriff, trustee or other person conducting the
sale and who has actual notice of the forfeiture proceedings shall distribute
the sale proceeds as follows:
(A) To the expenses of the sale;
(B) To the payment of the obligations owed to the foreclosing
financial institution that are secured by the property and to any other person
whose lien or security interest in the property has been foreclosed in the suit
or action in the order determined by the court; and
(C) The surplus, if any, shall be distributed to the seizing or
forfeiting agency, or to the court in which the forfeiture proceedings are
pending.
(b) The sheriff, trustee or other person who distributes the
sale proceeds as provided shall not be liable to any person who has or asserts
an interest in the property.
(2) Within 30 days following seizure of property for
forfeiture, the seizing agency, in consultation with the district attorney of
the county in which the property was seized for forfeiture, shall determine
whether it will seek the forfeiture of the property. If the seizing agency
elects not to seek forfeiture, it shall pay all costs and expenses relating to
towing and storage of the property, and shall cause to be discharged any
possessory chattel liens arising under ORS 87.152 to 87.162 that have attached
to the property since its seizure and release the property. The property may be
released to a person other than the person from whose custody or control the
property was taken if the seizing agency, forfeiting agency or forfeiture
counsel first mails to the last-known addresses of all persons known to have an
interest in the property a notice of intent to release the property. The notice
shall specify the person to whom the property is to be released and shall
detail the time and place of the release. An agency that complies with the
provisions of this subsection by paying costs and expenses of towing and
storage, discharging possessory liens, mailing any required notices and
releasing the property shall not be liable for its actions under this
subsection or for any consequences thereof.
(3) A forfeiting agency shall, pending forfeiture and final
disposition and subject to the need to retain it in any criminal proceeding,
provide that property in the physical custody of the seizing or forfeiting
agency be serviced or maintained as may be reasonably appropriate to preserve
the value of the property.
(4) A forfeiting agency may, pending forfeiture and final
disposition and subject to the need to retain seized property in any criminal
proceeding:
(a) Provide that the seized property be transferred for
forfeiture to any city, county, state or federal agency with forfeiture
authority, provided that no such transfer shall have the effect of diminishing
or reducing the rights of any third party under this chapter [and ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666,
475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135].
(b) Apply to the court for an order providing that the seized
property may be sold, leased, rented or operated in the manner and on the terms
that may be specified in the court's order. The court shall deny any
application unless the sale, lease, rental or operation of the property will be
conducted in a commercially reasonable manner and shall not result in a
material reduction of the property's value. An order shall only be entered:
(A) After notice and opportunity to be heard is provided to all
persons known to have or to claim an interest in the property; and
(B) With the consent of all persons holding security interests
of record in the property.
(c) Provide that the seized property be removed to a storage
area for safekeeping.
(5) Unless otherwise ordered by the court, the proceeds of the
sale, leasing, renting or operation under subsection (4) of this section shall
be held by the forfeiting agency, and the rights of holders of security
interests of record in the property shall attach to the proceeds of the sale,
leasing, renting or operation in the same order of priority as interests
attached to the property.
(6)(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection
and except for currency with apparent or known intrinsic collector value, all
cash seized for forfeiture, together with all cash received from the sale,
leasing, renting or operation of the property, shall be immediately deposited
in an insured interest-bearing forfeiture trust account or accounts maintained
by the seizing or forfeiting agency exclusively for this purpose. Cash may be
retained as evidence in a criminal proceeding but shall be deposited
immediately when the need to retain it as evidence is discharged.
(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this subsection, all cash
seized for forfeiture which at the time of seizure is deposited in any form of
account in a financial institution may remain in the account in the financial
institution. From the time of seizure until the forfeiture proceeding is
abandoned, or until a court ultimately enters or fails to enter a judgment of
forfeiture, all deposits except the deposit of interest by the financial
institution, withdrawals or other transactions involving the account are
prohibited, unless approved by the court.
(c) Subject to any court order, interest earned upon cash
deposited in a forfeiture trust account or held in an account in a financial
institution under this subsection shall be disbursed as follows:
(A) If the forfeiture proceeding is abandoned, or if the court
ultimately fails to enter a judgment of forfeiture or foreclosure, any interest
earned, together with the cash deposited in the forfeiture trust account in
connection with the seizure in question, shall be paid by the seizing or
forfeiting agency to the person from whom it was seized and any interest
earned, together with the cash deposited in an account in a financial
institution shall be released by the seizing or forfeiting agency to the person
from whom it was seized.
(B) If a judgment of forfeiture is entered, but parties other
than the forfeiting agency establish rights to portions of the amount deposited
in the forfeiture trust account or the account held in a financial institution
which are in the aggregate larger than or equal to the cash on deposit plus
interest earned thereon, the interest, together with the cash on deposit, shall
be disbursed by the forfeiting agency to the parties in the order of their
priority.
(C) If a judgment of forfeiture is entered, and the total
amount arising out of the seizure which is on deposit in the forfeiture trust
account or in an account in a financial institution, including interest earned
on moneys deposited, is greater than the aggregate amount needed to satisfy the
established interests of security interest holders, lienholders and other
claimants, then the balance remaining after payment by the forfeiting agency to
parties shall be retained by the forfeiting agency.
(7) If the property seized for forfeiture consists of stocks,
bonds, promissory notes, or other security or evidence of indebtedness, and the
property is held in some form of account in a financial institution, the
property may remain in the account pending a final decision in the forfeiture
proceedings. Unless otherwise allowed by order of the court, no transactions
involving the account shall be permitted other than the deposit or reinvestment
of dividends or other normally recurring payments on the property. Any accrual
to the value of the property during the pendency of forfeiture proceedings
shall be disbursed in the manner provided for the disbursement of interest
under subsection (6) of this section.
(8) If property is seized for forfeiture or if a notice of
forfeiture is filed without a prior judicial determination of probable cause, a
court, on application filed by an owner of or interest holder in the property
within 15 days after notice of its seizure for forfeiture, or actual knowledge
of it, whichever is earlier, may, after five days' written notice to the
forfeiture counsel, issue an order to show cause to the forfeiting agency, for
a hearing on the sole issue of whether probable cause for forfeiture of the
property then exists. If the court finds that there is no probable cause for
forfeiture of the property, the property seized for forfeiture from the
applicant or subjected to the notice of forfeiture shall be released from its
seizure for forfeiture or lien pending the outcome of a judicial proceeding
under ORS 475A.075.
NOTE: Deletes
superfluous ORS references in (1)(a) and (4)(a).
SECTION 149.
ORS 475A.075 is amended to read:
475A.075. A civil action in rem may be brought as provided in
this section in any case in which forfeiture is sought. A civil action in rem
must be brought if the property is real property, the property is in whole or
part a manufactured dwelling as defined in ORS 446.003, the property is a
floating home as defined in ORS 830.700 or if the property is subject to an
interest in favor of any person known to have an interest, other than a person
who engaged in prohibited conduct.
(1) If a forfeiting agency has commenced proceedings under ORS
475A.055, then an action shall be commenced by forfeiture counsel, within 15
days of receipt of a claim. If no proceedings have been commenced under ORS 475A.055,
then the action shall be commenced by forfeiture counsel within 30 days of
seizure. The property may be released by forfeiture counsel as provided in ORS
475A.045 (2).
(2) An action is commenced by filing a complaint. Responses to
a complaint shall conform to the following procedure:
(a) A person claiming an interest in the property shall respond
as provided in the Oregon Rules of Civil Procedure and, if a claim has not
previously been filed, by filing a claim in the form set forth in ORS 475A.055 (3)
with the court and posting a bond with the court. The bond shall be a cash bond
in an amount equal to 10 percent of the value of the interest claimed by the
person in the property. Upon good cause shown by motion and affidavit filed
with the initial appearance, the court may waive or reduce the bond. Failure to
file an appearance, claim and bond shall constitute a default. The bond shall
be returned to the claimant upon the entry of a final determination on the
claim.
(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this
subsection, a financial institution holding an interest in the seized property
shall respond to a complaint with an affidavit establishing that the financial
institution's interest in the property was acquired:
(A) In the regular course of business as a financial
institution;
(B) For valuable consideration;
(C) Without knowledge of the prohibited conduct;
(D) In good faith and without intent to defeat the interest of
any potential forfeiting agency; and
(E) With respect to personal property, prior to the seizure of
the property, or with respect to real property, recorded prior to the recording
of notice of the seizure of the real property in the mortgage records of the
county in which the real property is located. Failure to file an affidavit
shall constitute a default. The affidavit shall be filed within 30 days from
the date of service.
(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this
subsection, any person, other than a financial institution, who transfers or
conveys an interest in real property pursuant to a contract for transfer or
conveyance of an interest in real property as defined in ORS 93.905 and who
retains an interest in the real property, or any successor in interest, may
respond to a complaint with an affidavit establishing that the person:
(A) Received the interest in return for valuable consideration
or by way of devise or intestate succession;
(B) Had no knowledge at the time of transfer or conveyance of
the prohibited conduct;
(C) Acted in good faith and without intent to defeat the
interest of any potential forfeiting agency;
(D) Recorded the interest in the mortgage records of the county
in which the real property is located prior to the recording of any notice of
intent to seize or notice of seizure; and
(E) Continued to hold the interest without acquiescing in the
prohibited conduct.
(d) For the purposes of paragraph (c) of this subsection, a
person shall be considered to have acquiesced in prohibited conduct if the
person knew of the prohibited conduct and knowingly failed to take reasonable
action under the circumstances to terminate or avoid use of the property in the
course of prohibited conduct. For purposes of this section, "reasonable
action under the circumstances" includes, but is not limited to:
(A) Reporting the prohibited conduct to a police agency;
(B) Commencing action that will assert the rights of the
affiant as to the property interest;
(C) Terminating a rental agreement; or
(D) Seeking an abatement order under the provisions of ORS
105.505 to 105.520, or under the provisions of ORS 105.555 to 105.565 and
105.575 to 105.600, or under any ordinance or regulation allowing abatement of
nuisances.
(e) The affidavit permitted by paragraph (c) of this subsection
shall be filed within 30 days from the date of service of the summons and
complaint. Failure to file an affidavit or to respond as set forth in paragraph
(a) of this subsection shall constitute a default.
(f) In response to an affidavit filed pursuant to paragraph (c)
of this subsection, the forfeiting agency may controvert any or all of the
assertions made in the affidavit. The affidavit of the forfeiting agency shall
be filed within 20 days of the filing of the affidavit filed under paragraph
(c) of this subsection. The transferor, conveyor or successor in interest may
respond, within five days of the filing of the affidavit of the forfeiting
agency, with a supplemental affidavit limited to the matters stated in the
affidavit of the forfeiting agency. If the forfeiting agency does not file an
affidavit within the time allowed, the transferor, conveyor or successor in
interest shall be considered a financial institution for all purposes under
this chapter [and ORS 167.243, 167.248,
205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135].
(g)(A) If the forfeiting agency files an affidavit under
paragraph (f) of this subsection, the court shall determine from the affidavits
whether there is a genuine issue of material fact with respect to the
assertions of the transferor, conveyor or successor in interest.
(B) If the court determines that there is no genuine issue of
material fact as to the truth of the assertions in the affidavit filed under
paragraph (f) of this subsection, the transferor, conveyor or successor in
interest shall be considered a financial institution for all purposes under
this chapter [and ORS 167.243, 167.248,
205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135]. The court
shall order the forfeiting agency to pay the costs and disbursements, including
attorney fees, of the prevailing transferor, conveyor or successor in interest
if the forfeiting agency does not prevail.
(C) If the court determines that there is a genuine issue of
material fact as to the truth of the assertions in the affidavit filed pursuant
to paragraph (f) of this subsection, the transferor, conveyor or successor in
interest shall, within 15 days, respond as provided in paragraph (a) of this
subsection. The court may order the transferor, conveyor or successor in
interest to pay the attorney fees of the forfeiting agency that were incurred
in contesting the affidavit of the transferor, conveyor or successor in
interest if the court determines that the affidavit of the transferor, conveyor
or successor in interest was frivolous.
(3) All persons known to have an interest in the property,
including any claimant, shall be served with a true copy of the inventory of
the property prepared pursuant to ORS 475A.035 and 475A.055, the summons and
the complaint as provided in ORCP 5 and 7 D. Notice of the action shall be
published as provided in ORCP 7 D(6)(b) to (d) unless notice has previously
been published in accordance with ORS 475A.055 (1). In the event that a
forfeiture involves a vehicle, and the notices required by this statute have
been given, and substitute service on the claimant is required because personal
service cannot be reasonably accomplished, service as authorized by ORCP 7 D(4)
shall be sufficient to establish jurisdiction over a registered owner or
operator of a vehicle. If the property is in whole or part a manufactured
dwelling as defined in ORS 446.003 or a floating home as defined in ORS
830.700, the forfeiting agency shall, in addition to serving all persons known
to have an interest in the property, record a notice of seizure containing a
description of the manufactured dwelling or floating home in all public offices
maintaining records that impart constructive notice of matters relating to
manufactured dwellings or floating homes.
(4) All judicial proceedings under this chapter shall be
governed by the Oregon Rules of Civil Procedure to the extent that they do not
conflict with specific provisions of this chapter [and ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040,
475A.050 and 475A.135].
(5)(a) The filing of criminal charges related to any civil
proceeding for forfeiture may, upon motion of forfeiture counsel or the
district attorney or upon motion on behalf of defendant in a related criminal
proceeding, stay the civil forfeiture proceeding until the trial, plea or
dismissal of the related criminal proceeding. A motion for stay on behalf of
the defendant in a related criminal proceeding shall constitute a waiver of
double jeopardy by the defendant as to the civil forfeiture proceeding and any
related criminal proceeding. Pursuant to subsection (6) of this section, a
civil forfeiture proceeding stayed under this paragraph may be consolidated for
trial or other resolution with any related criminal proceeding.
(b) The court may stay the civil forfeiture proceeding upon
motion of a party and good cause shown. Good cause may include a reasonable
fear on the part of a claimant that the claimant could be prosecuted for
conduct arising out of the same factual situation which gave rise to the
seizure of property. Pursuant to subsection (6) of this section, a civil
forfeiture proceeding stayed under this paragraph may be consolidated for trial
or other resolution with any related criminal proceeding.
(6) Notwithstanding any stay entered pursuant to subsection (5)(a)
or (b) of this section, an action pursuant to this section may be consolidated
with any other action pursuant to this section relating to the same property or
parties on motion by any party in any related action. Upon motion by the state
or a political subdivision of the state, or any criminal defendant who is also
a claimant, a civil forfeiture proceeding under this section may be
consolidated for trial or other resolution with any related criminal
proceeding. Trial or other resolution of the civil forfeiture action shall
immediately follow the related criminal trial or other resolution, shall be
part of the same proceeding and shall be heard by the same trier of fact. Any
objection by the defendant to the consolidation or any motion by the defendant
to sever the related criminal case from the civil proceeding for forfeiture
shall constitute a waiver of double jeopardy as to any related criminal action
and the civil forfeiture proceeding.
(7) The action shall be commenced and tried:
(a) In the case of real property, in the circuit court in a
county in which the property is situated; or
(b) In all other cases, in the circuit court of the county in
which the property was seized or the county in which any part of the prohibited
conduct took place.
NOTE: Deletes
superfluous ORS references in (2)(f), (2)(g)(B) and (4).
SECTION 150.
ORS 475A.110 is amended to read:
475A.110. A judgment of forfeiture shall recite the basis for
the judgment.
(1) If no financial institutions have filed the affidavit
described in ORS 475A.075 (2)(b), and if the court has failed to uphold the
claim or affidavit of any other claimant, the effect of the judgment shall be
that:
(a) Title to the property shall pass to the forfeiting agency
free of any interest or encumbrance thereon in favor of any person who has been
given notice;
(b) The forfeiting agency may transfer good and sufficient
title to any subsequent purchaser or transferee, and the title shall be
recognized by all courts, by the state, by the departments and agencies of the
state, and by any political subdivision. In the case of real property, the
forfeiting agency shall warrant the title against constitutional defect. A
warranty under this section is limited to the purchase price of the real
property; and
(c) Any department, agency or officer of the state or any
political subdivision whose official functions include the issuance of
certificates or other evidence of title shall be immune from civil or criminal
liability when such issuance is pursuant to a judgment of forfeiture.
(2) If any affidavits are filed by financial institutions as
provided in ORS 475A.075 (2)(b), or if any claimants file an appearance, claim
and bond as provided in ORS 475A.075 (2)(a) or an affidavit as provided in ORS
475A.075 (2)(c):
(a) The court shall foreclose all security interests, liens and
vendor's interests of financial institutions and claimants as to which the
court determines that there is a legal or equitable basis for foreclosure; and
(b) All other interests applicable to the property, which are
not foreclosed or otherwise eliminated through a judgment and decree of
foreclosure, shall, if and to the extent that they are valid and subsisting,
remain in effect, and the property shall remain subject to them upon completion
of the forfeiture proceeding.
(3) Notwithstanding the provisions of this chapter [and ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666,
475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135] or other law, if a financial
institution or other person has filed an affidavit described in ORS 475A.075,
or if the court has upheld the claim of any claimant, then as to each item of
property seized:
(a) If the court has determined that the property should not be
forfeited and has not foreclosed the security interests, liens or other
interests covering the property, the court shall render judgment in favor of
the owner of the property, the property shall be returned to the owner and all
security interests, liens and other interests applicable to the property shall
remain in effect as though the property had never been seized. Upon the return
of the property to the owner, the seizing agency shall pay all costs and
expenses relating to towing and storage of the property, and shall cause to be
discharged any possessory chattel liens on the property arising under ORS
87.152 to 87.162 that have attached to the property since the seizure.
(b) If the court has determined that the property should not be
forfeited and has foreclosed one or more interests covering the property,
including security interests or liens covering the property or contracts for
the transfer or conveyance of the property, the seizing agency shall pay all
costs and expenses relating to towing and storage of the property, and shall
cause to be discharged any possessory chattel liens on the property arising
under ORS 87.152 to 87.162 that have attached to the property since the seizure
and the court shall order the property sold pursuant to a sheriff's sale or
other sale authorized by the court within such time as may be prescribed by the
court following entry of the judgment. If any interests covering the property
have not been foreclosed, including any liens or security interests of a
claimant whose claim has been upheld, or of a financial institution that has
filed the affidavit described in ORS 475A.075, the property shall be sold
subject to those interests. The judgment shall also order the proceeds of such
sale applied in the following order:
(A) To the payment of the costs of the sale;
(B) To the satisfaction of the foreclosed liens, security
interests and contracts in order of their priority; and
(C) The excess, if any, to the owner of the property.
(c) If the court has determined that the property should be
forfeited and has foreclosed one or more security interests, liens, contracts
or other interests covering the property, the seizing agency shall pay all
costs and expenses relating to towing and storage of the property, and shall
cause to be discharged any possessory chattel liens on the property arising
under ORS 87.152 to 87.162 that have attached to the property since the seizure
and the court shall order the property sold pursuant to a sheriff's sale or
other sale authorized by the court. If any interest in the property was claimed
by a financial institution or other claimant and the interest was upheld but
not foreclosed, the property shall be sold subject to the interest. The sale of
the property shall be held within such time as may be prescribed by the court
following entry of the judgment. The judgment shall also order the proceeds of
such sale applied in the following order:
(A) To the payment of the costs of the sale;
(B) To the satisfaction of the foreclosed liens, security
interests and contracts in the order of their priority; and
(C) The excess, if any, to the forfeiting agency to be disposed
of as provided in ORS 475A.120.
(d) If the court has determined that the property should be
forfeited and has not foreclosed the interests of any party in the property,
the seizing agency shall pay all costs and expenses relating to towing and
storage of the property and shall cause to be discharged any possessory chattel
liens on the property arising under ORS 87.152 to 87.162 that have attached to
the property since the seizure, and the court shall enter a judgment awarding
the property to the forfeiting agency, subject to the interests of any
claimants whose claims or affidavits were upheld by the court, and subject to
the interests of any financial institutions that filed affidavits under ORS
475A.075 (2)(b), which shall remain in full force and effect.
(4) The forfeiting agency shall not be liable to any person as
a consequence of obedience to a judgment directing conveyance to a financial
institution.
(5) A copy of the judgment, including any judgment entered
under the provisions of ORS 475A.055 (4), shall be sent by forfeiture counsel
to the Asset Forfeiture Oversight Advisory Committee.
(6)(a) On entry of judgment for a claimant in any proceeding to
forfeit property under this chapter [and
ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and
475A.135], unless the court has foreclosed one or more security interests,
liens or other interests covering the property, such property or interest in
property shall be returned or conveyed immediately to the claimant designated
by the court. The court, in the manner provided by ORCP 68, shall award costs,
disbursements and attorney fees to the prevailing claimants and financial
institutions, to be paid by the forfeiting agency.
(b) If it appears that there was reasonable suspicion that the
property was subject to forfeiture, the court shall cause a finding to be
entered, and no claimant or financial institution shall be entitled to damages,
nor is the person who made the seizure, the seizing or forfeiting agency or
forfeiture counsel liable to suit or judgment on account of such seizure or
action. An order directing seizure issued under ORS 475A.035 (4) shall
constitute a finding of reasonable suspicion that the property was subject to
forfeiture.
(7) Nothing contained in this section shall prevent a claimant
or financial institution from obtaining any deficiency to which such claimant
or financial institution would otherwise be entitled.
(8) Nothing in this section or in ORS 475A.045 shall prevent a
seizing agency from entering into an agreement with a claimant or other person
for the reimbursement of the seizing agency for the costs and expenses relating
to towing and storage of property or the cost of discharging any possessory
chattel lien on the property arising under ORS 87.152 to 87.162 that attached
to the property between seizure of the property and release or forfeiture of
the property.
NOTE: Deletes
superfluous ORS references in (3) and (6)(a).
SECTION 151.
ORS 475A.115 is amended to read:
475A.115. Distribution of property or proceeds in accordance
with this chapter [and ORS 167.243,
167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135] shall
be made equitably and may be pursuant to intergovernmental agreement under ORS
chapter 190. Intergovernmental agreements providing for such distributions and
in effect July 24, 1989, shall remain valid unless changed by the parties.
NOTE: Deletes
superfluous ORS references.
SECTION 152.
ORS 475A.125 is amended to read:
475A.125. After the forfeiture counsel distributes payments
under ORS 475A.110, the forfeiture counsel shall disburse and distribute
payment as follows when the forfeiting agency is the state or when the state is
the recipient of property forfeited under this chapter [and ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040,
475A.050 and 475A.135]:
(1)(a) Costs shall first be paid from the property or, if the
property is sold, from its proceeds. As used in this section, "costs"
includes attorney fees, costs and disbursements, and those special expenses,
including hourly investigative costs and including the provision of lawful
currency, incurred by any seizing agency or other agency of the state in
investigating and prosecuting a specific case. "Costs" as used in
this section also includes any expenses of servicing or maintaining the seized
property under the provisions of ORS 475A.045 (3). These costs shall not
otherwise include the expenditures made in connection with the ordinary
maintenance and operation of the seizing agency.
(b) Any amount paid to or retained by the Department of Justice
under this subsection shall be deposited in the Criminal Justice Revolving
Account in the State Treasury.
(c) Any amount paid to or retained by the Oregon State Police
under this subsection shall be deposited in the State Police Account.
(2) The state may:
(a) With written authorization from the district attorney for
the jurisdiction in which the property was seized, destroy any firearms or
controlled substances.
(b) Sell the forfeited property by public or other commercially
reasonable sale and pay from the proceeds the expenses of keeping and selling
the property.
(c) Retain any vehicles, firearms or other equipment usable for
law enforcement purposes, for official law enforcement use directly by the
state.
(d) Lend or transfer any vehicles, firearms or other equipment
usable for law enforcement purposes, to any federal, state or local law
enforcement agency or district attorney for official law enforcement use
directly by the transferee entity.
(3) When the state has entered into an intergovernmental
agreement with one or more political subdivisions under ORS 475A.115, or when a
law enforcement agency of the state has entered into an agreement with another
law enforcement agency of the state, an equitable portion of the forfeited
property shall be distributed to each agency participating in the seizure or
forfeiture as provided by the agreement.
(4) The balance of the property, including the balance of any
proceeds received by the state under an intergovernmental agreement or under an
agreement between state law enforcement agencies, shall be divided as follows:
(a) When no law enforcement agency other than the Department of
Justice participated in the seizure or forfeiture, or when the Department of
Justice has entered into an agreement under subsection (3) of this section, the
property shall be divided between the Criminal Justice Revolving Account and
the Special Crime and Forfeiture Account created in ORS 475A.130, according to
the following schedule:
(A) One hundred percent of the first $200,000 accumulated shall
be deposited in the Criminal Justice Revolving Account.
(B) Seventy-five percent of the next $200,000 shall be
deposited in the Criminal Justice Revolving Account and the balance in the
Special Crime and Forfeiture Account.
(C) Fifty percent of the next $200,000 shall be deposited in
the Criminal Justice Revolving Account and the balance in the Special Crime and
Forfeiture Account.
(D) Twenty-five percent of the next $200,000 shall be deposited
in the Criminal Justice Revolving Account and the balance in the Special Crime
and Forfeiture Account.
(E) One hundred percent of all additional sums shall be
deposited in the Special Crime and Forfeiture Account.
(b) When no law enforcement agency other than the Department of
State Police participated in the seizure or forfeiture, or when the Department
of State Police has entered into an agreement under subsection (3) of this
section, the property shall be divided between the State Police Account and the
Special Crime and Forfeiture Account according to the following schedule:
(A) One hundred percent of the first $600,000 accumulated shall
be deposited in the State Police Account.
(B) Seventy-five percent of the next $300,000 shall be
deposited in the State Police Account and the balance in the Special Crime and
Forfeiture Account.
(C) Fifty percent of the next $200,000 shall be deposited in
the State Police Account and the balance in the Special Crime and Forfeiture
Account.
(D) Twenty-five percent of the next $200,000 shall be deposited
in the State Police Account and the balance in the Special Crime and Forfeiture
Account.
(E) One hundred percent of all additional sums shall be
deposited in the Special Crime and Forfeiture Account.
(5) Notwithstanding subsections (3) and (4) of this section,
before any distribution under subsection (3) of this section or any division
and disbursement of proceeds under subsection (4) of this section, the state
shall deduct an amount equal to 10 percent of the proceeds from the property,
but not to exceed $250,000 in any biennium, and deposit that amount in the
Illegal Drug Cleanup Fund established by ORS 475.495 for the purposes specified
in ORS 475.495 (5). The state shall sell as much property as may be needed to
meet the requirements of this section. Deposits to the Illegal Drug Cleanup
Fund under this subsection shall be made once every three months and are due
within 20 days of the end of each quarter. No interest shall accrue on amounts
that are paid within the period specified by this subsection.
(6) Notwithstanding subsections (3) and (4) of this section,
before any distribution under subsection (3) of this section or any division
and disbursement of proceeds under subsection (4) of this section, the state
shall deduct an amount equal to three percent of the proceeds from the
property, but not to exceed $50,000 in any biennium, and deposit that amount in
the Asset Forfeiture Oversight Account established by ORS 475A.160 for the
purposes specified in ORS 475A.155. The state shall sell as much property as
may be needed to meet the requirements of this section. Deposits to the Asset
Forfeiture Oversight Account under this subsection shall be made once every
three months and are due within 20 days of the end of each quarter. No interest
shall accrue on amounts that are paid within the period specified by this
subsection.
(7) Forfeiture proceeds received by the Department of Justice
and the Department of State Police shall be used for enforcement of laws
relating to the unlawful delivery, distribution, manufacture or possession of
controlled substances, including but not limited to use of the proceeds for
controlled substance crime prevention, drug intervention, drug treatment and
drug education programs. Except as specifically provided by this subsection,
forfeiture proceeds under this subsection may not be used for payment of the
wages of peace officers, as defined in ORS 161.015, the purchase, construction,
expansion, remodeling or maintenance of buildings, or the funding of all or
part of any position that was in existence before August 23, 1993, and that was
previously funded out of revenues other than forfeiture proceeds. Forfeiture
proceeds may be used for the following:
(a) Payment of that portion of the wages of personnel other
than peace officers who administer the forfeiture laws.
(b) Payment of the wages of peace officers performing
supervisory duties for interagency drug enforcement task forces created by
intergovernmental agreement.
(c) Payment of overtime wages of peace officers arising out of
drug enforcement duties.
(8) The forfeiting agency, and any agency that receives
forfeited property or proceeds from the sale of forfeited property, shall
maintain written documentation of each sale, decision to retain, transfer or
other disposition of the property or proceeds.
(9) Forfeiture counsel shall report each forfeiture to the
Asset Forfeiture Oversight Advisory Committee as soon as reasonably possible
after the conclusion of forfeiture proceedings, whether or not the forfeiture
results in an entry of judgment under ORS 475A.110. The committee shall develop
and make available forms for the purpose of reporting forfeitures.
(10) Law enforcement agencies shall supply to forfeiture
counsel all information requested by forfeiture counsel necessary for the
preparation of the report required by subsection (9) of this section.
NOTE: Deletes
superfluous ORS references in first sentence.
SECTION 153.
ORS 475A.130 is amended to read:
475A.130. The Special Crime and Forfeiture Account is
established in the General Fund of the State Treasury. The account shall
consist of all forfeiture proceeds received or retained by agencies of the
state under this chapter [and ORS
167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135],
except as otherwise provided by ORS 475A.125. All moneys in the account are
continuously appropriated and shall be used for enforcement of laws relating to
the unlawful delivery, distribution, manufacture or possession of controlled
substances, including but not limited to use of the proceeds for controlled
substance crime prevention, drug intervention, drug treatment and drug
education programs. Except as specifically provided by this section, forfeiture
proceeds in the Special Crime and Forfeiture Account may not be used for
payment of the wages of peace officers, as defined in ORS 161.015, the
purchase, construction, expansion, remodeling or maintenance of buildings, or
the funding of all or part of any position that was in existence before August
23, 1993, and that was previously funded out of revenues other than forfeiture
proceeds. Forfeiture proceeds may be used for the following:
(1) Payment of that portion of the wages of personnel other
than peace officers who administer the forfeiture laws.
(2) Payment of the wages of peace officers performing
supervisory duties for interagency drug enforcement task forces created by
intergovernmental agreement.
(3) Payment of overtime wages of peace officers arising out of
drug enforcement duties.
NOTE: Deletes
superfluous ORS references in second sentence.
SECTION 154.
ORS 475A.135 is amended to read:
475A.135. If any section, portion, clause or phrase of [ORS chapter 475A and ORS 167.243, 167.248,
205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135] this chapter is held to be invalid or
unconstitutional, the remaining sections, portions, clauses and phrases shall
not be affected but shall remain in full force and effect.
NOTE: Inserts
appropriate ORS chapter reference; deletes superfluous ORS references.
SECTION 155.
ORS 475A.155 is amended to read:
475A.155. (1) The Asset Forfeiture Oversight Advisory Committee
is created. The committee consists of 12 members to be appointed as follows:
(a) The President of the Senate and the Speaker of the House of
Representatives shall appoint six legislators to the committee. Three shall be
Senators appointed by the President. Three shall be Representatives appointed
by the Speaker.
(b) The Governor shall appoint three members to the committee.
(c) The Attorney General shall appoint three members to the
committee.
(2) The term of a legislative member of the committee shall be
two years. The term of all other members shall be four years. Members of the
committee may be reappointed. If a vacancy occurs on the committee for any
reason during the term of membership, the official who appointed the member to
the vacant position shall appoint a new member to serve the remainder of the
term. A member of the committee may be removed from the committee at any time
by the official who appointed the member.
(3)(a) The members of the committee shall select from among
themselves a chairperson and vice chairperson.
(b) The committee shall meet at such times and places as
determined by the chairperson.
(4) Legislative members shall be entitled to payment of
compensation and expense reimbursement under ORS 171.072, payable from funds
appropriated to the Legislative Assembly.
(5) The committee shall:
(a) Prepare reports detailing the number and nature of
forfeitures carried out under this chapter [and
ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and
475A.135], including the disposition and use of the proceeds from the
forfeitures. The reports shall be submitted on or before March 31 of each year
to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, President of the Senate,
Attorney General and Governor.
(b) In consultation with forfeiture counsel, review and, if
necessary, modify the reports required from forfeiture counsel and political
subdivisions to ensure that information necessary for oversight is being
obtained and is gathered in an efficient and effective manner.
(c) Make any recommendations it deems necessary to increase the
effectiveness, fairness and efficiency of forfeiture actions brought under this
chapter [and ORS 167.243, 167.248,
205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040, 475A.050 and 475A.135].
(d) Make any recommendations for additional legislation
governing forfeiture actions brought under this chapter [and ORS 167.243, 167.248, 205.246, 471.666, 475A.010, 475A.040,
475A.050 and 475A.135].
(e) Conduct studies or other activities as necessary to
accomplish the purposes of this subsection.
(6) The Executive Director of the Oregon Criminal Justice
Commission shall provide the committee with staff, subject to funds available
for that purpose.
NOTE: Deletes
superfluous ORS references in (5)(a), (c) and (d).
SECTION 156.
ORS 477.001 is amended to read:
477.001. As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise
requires:
(1) "Additional fire hazard" means a hazard that has
been determined to exist by the forester pursuant to ORS 477.580.
(2) "Board" means the State Board of Forestry.
(3) "Campfire" means any open fire used for cooking,
personal warmth, lighting, ceremonial or aesthetic purposes that is hand built
and that is not associated with any debris disposal activities.
(4) "Department" means the State Forestry Department.
(5) "District" means a forest protection district
organized under ORS 477.225.
(6) "Every reasonable effort" means the use of the
reasonably available personnel and equipment under the supervision and control
of an owner or operator usually and customarily used in the forest industry to
fight fire, which are needed to fight the fire and which can be brought to bear
on the fire in a timely fashion.
(7) "Fire season" means a period designated pursuant
to ORS 477.505.
(8) "Fiscal year" means the period beginning on July
1 of any year and ending on June 30 of the next year.
(9) "Forestland" means any woodland, brushland,
timberland, grazing land or clearing, which, during any time of the year,
contains enough forest growth, slashing or vegetation to constitute, in the
judgment of the forester, a fire hazard, regardless of how the land is zoned or
taxed.
(10) "Forest patrol assessment" means the costs
levied and assessed under ORS 477.270.
(11) "Forest protective association" or
"association" means an association, group or agency composed of
owners of forestlands, organized for the purpose of protecting such forestlands
from fire.
(12) "Forest resource" means the various types of
vegetation normally growing on Oregon's forestland, the associated harvested
products and the associated residue, including but not limited to brush, grass,
logs, saplings, seedlings, trees and slashing.
(13) "Forester" means the State Forester or
authorized representative.
(14) "Governing body" of a county means the county
court or board of county commissioners.
(15) "Grazing land" is defined by ORS 477.205.
(16) "Open fire" means any outdoor fire that occurs
in such a manner that combustion air is not effectively controlled and
combustion products are not effectively vented through a stack or chimney.
(17) "Operation" means any industrial activity, any
development or any improvement on forestland inside or within one-eighth of one
mile of a forest protection district, including but not limited to the
harvesting of forest tree species, the clearing of land, the use of power-driven
machinery and the use of fire, excluding, however, the culture and harvesting
of agricultural crops.
(18) "Operation area" means the area on which an
operation is being conducted and the area on which operation activity may have
resulted in the ignition of a fire.
(19) "Operation in progress" means that time when
workers are on an operation area for the purpose of an operation, including the
period of time when [watchmen] fire watches are required to be on the
operation area pursuant to ORS 477.665.
(20) "Operator" means any person who, either
personally or through employees, agents, representatives or contractors, is
carrying on or has carried on any operation.
(21) "Owner" means an individual, a combination of
individuals, a partnership, a corporation, the State of Oregon or a political
subdivision thereof, or an association of any nature that holds an ownership
interest in land.
(22) "Political subdivision" includes, but is not
limited to, counties, cities and special districts.
(23) "Rangeland" is defined by ORS 477.315.
(24) "Routine road maintenance" is defined by ORS
477.625.
(25) "Side" means any single unit of a logging
operation employing power-driven machinery.
(26) "Slashing" means the forest debris or refuse on
any forestland resulting from the cutting, killing, pruning, severing or
removal of brush, trees or other forest growth.
(27) "State Forester" means the person appointed
State Forester pursuant to ORS 526.031 or the person serving in the position on
an interim or delegated basis.
(28) "Summit of the Cascade Mountains" is considered
to be a line beginning at the intersection of the northern boundary of the
State of Oregon and the western boundary of Wasco County; thence southerly
along the western boundaries of Wasco, Jefferson, Deschutes and Klamath
Counties to the southern boundary of the State of Oregon.
(29) "Timberland" is defined by ORS 477.205.
(30) "Warden" means a fire warden appointed under ORS
477.355.
NOTE: Deletes
gender-specific language in (19).
SECTION 157.
ORS 477.281 is amended to read:
477.281. (1) The
obligation of an owner of timberland or grazing land for payment of assessments
and taxes for fire protection of forestland is limited to:
[(1)] (a) The payment of moneys pursuant to
ORS 321.015 (2), 477.277, 477.295, 477.760 (4) and 477.880 to maintain the
Oregon Forest Land Protection Fund reserve base at $15 million; and
[(2)] (b) The payment of forest protection
district assessments pursuant to ORS 477.205 to 477.291.
[(3)] (2) As used in this section,
"obligation of an owner of timberland or grazing land for payment of
assessments and taxes for fire protection of forestland" does not include
the duties or obligations of the owner under ORS 477.066, 477.068 or 477.120 or
the obligations of an owner of land included in a rural fire protection
district pursuant to ORS 478.010.
NOTE: Restructures
statute for clarity and conformance to legislative form and style.
SECTION 158.
ORS 477.665 is amended to read:
477.665. (1) During a fire season inside or within one-eighth
of one mile of a forest protection district, every operator using power-driven
machinery in an operation area shall provide [watchman] fire watch
service on the operation area. The [watchman] fire watch service shall consist of
not less than one competent person, who shall be constantly on duty at times
prescribed by rules promulgated by the State Forester. These rules shall
require [watchman] fire watch service at such times and at
such places as the spread of fire on or from the operation area to forestland
reasonably may be expected.
(2) The forester may modify or waive, in writing, any
requirement of this section as to any operation whenever the fire hazard is not
sufficient to justify the requirement.
NOTE: Deletes
gender-specific language.
SECTION 159.
ORS 479.530 is amended to read:
479.530. As used in ORS 479.510 to 479.945, unless the context
requires otherwise:
(1) "Approved testing laboratory" means a testing
laboratory that meets criteria for electrical product evaluation established by
the Director of the Department of Consumer and Business Services with the
approval of the board under ORS 479.730.
(2) "Board" means the Electrical and Elevator Board
established under ORS 455.138.
(3) "Certified electrical product" means an electrical
product that is certified under ORS 479.760 and that is not decertified.
(4) "Competent inspection service" means an
electrical inspection service of a city or county administered under ORS
455.150 that employs electrical inspectors who are certified to meet standards
under ORS 479.810.
(5) "Commercial electrical air conditioning
equipment" means heating, cooling, refrigeration, dehumidifying,
humidifying and filtering equipment used for climatizing or moving of air if
used in commerce, industry or government and if installed in a place not
accessible to the general public other than the switches regulating the
operation of the equipment.
(6) "Department" means the Department of Consumer and
Business Services.
(7) "Director" means the Director of the Department
of Consumer and Business Services.
(8) "Dwelling unit" means one or more rooms for the
use of one or more persons as a housekeeping unit with space for eating, living
and sleeping and permanent provisions for cooking and sanitation.
(9) "Electrical installations" means the construction
or installation of electrical wiring and the permanent attachment or
installation of electrical products in or on any structure that is not itself
an electrical product. "Electrical installation" also means the
maintenance or repair of installed electrical wiring and permanently attached
electrical products. "Electrical installation" does not include an
oil module.
(10) "Electrical product" means any electrical
equipment, appliance, material, device or apparatus to convey or be operated by
electrical current.
(11) "Equipment" means any material, fittings,
devices, appliances, fixtures, apparatus or the like that are used as part of
or in connection with an electrical installation.
(12) "Field evaluation firm" means an independent
organization that provides:
(a) Evaluations or testing, or both; and
(b) Documentation regarding compliance with electrical product
safety standards and with the electrical installation safety code.
(13) "Industrial electrical equipment" means
electrical products used in industry or government that utilizes electric
energy for mechanical, chemical, heating, lighting or similar purposes, that is
designed to service or produce a product and that is used directly in the
production of the service or product. "Industrial electrical
equipment" does not include:
(a) Wiring to be connected to industrial electrical products.
(b) Any other electrical product that is not an original part
of industrial electrical equipment.
(14) "Installation label" means an adhesive tag
issued by governmental agencies that administer the Electrical Safety Law to
licensed electrical contractors for application to those minor electrical
installations for which the board by rule determines to be appropriate for
random inspections.
(15) "License" means an annual permit issued by the
department under ORS 479.630 authorizing the person whose name appears as
licensee thereon to act as an electrical contractor, supervising electrician,
journeyman or apprentice electrician as indicated thereon.
(16) "Minimum safety standards" means safety
standards prescribed by the department under ORS 479.730.
(17) "Multifamily dwelling" means a building
containing more than one dwelling unit.
(18) "Oil module" means a prefabricated structure
manufactured to the specifications of the purchaser and used outside this state
in the exploration for or processing or extraction of petroleum products.
(19) "Permit" means an official document or card
issued by the enforcing agency to authorize performance of a specified
electrical installation.
(20) "Single family dwelling" means a building
consisting solely of one dwelling unit.
(21) "Uncertified product" means any electrical
product that is not an electrical product certified under ORS 479.760.
NOTE: Inserts
appropriate conjunction after (12)(a).
SECTION 160.
ORS 480.315 is amended to read:
480.315. The Legislative Assembly declares that, except as
provided in ORS 480.345 to 480.385, it is in the public interest to maintain a
prohibition on the self-service dispensing of Class 1 flammable liquids at
retail. The Legislative Assembly finds and declares that:
(1) The dispensing of Class 1 flammable liquids by dispensers
properly trained in appropriate safety procedures reduces fire hazards directly
associated with the dispensing of Class 1 flammable liquids;
(2) Appropriate safety standards often are unenforceable at
retail self-service stations in other states because cashiers are often unable
to maintain a clear view of and give undivided attention to the dispensing of
Class 1 flammable liquids by customers;
(3) Higher liability insurance rates charged to retail
self-service stations reflect the dangers posed to customers when they leave
their vehicles to dispense Class 1 flammable liquids, such as the increased
risk of crime and the increased risk of personal injury resulting from slipping
on slick surfaces;
(4) The dangers of crime and slick surfaces described in
subsection (3) of this section are enhanced because Oregon's weather is
uniquely adverse, causing wet pavement and reduced visibility;
(5) The dangers described in subsection (3) of this section are
heightened when the customer is a senior citizen or is disabled, especially if
the customer uses a mobility aid, such as a wheelchair, walker, cane or
crutches;
(6) Attempts by other states to require the providing of aid to
senior citizens and the disabled in the self-service dispensing of Class 1
flammable liquids at retail have failed, and therefore, senior citizens and the
disabled must pay the higher costs of full service;
(7) Exposure to toxic fumes represents a health hazard to
customers dispensing Class 1 flammable liquids;
(8) The hazard described in subsection (7) of this section is
heightened when the customer is pregnant;
(9) The exposure to Class 1 flammable liquids through
dispensing should, in general, be limited to as few individuals as possible,
such as gasoline station owners and their employees or other trained and
certified dispensers;
(10) The typical practice
of charging significantly higher prices [typically charged] for full-service fuel dispensing in states where
self-service is permitted at retail:
(a) [Discriminate] Discriminates against customers with
lower incomes, who are under greater economic pressure to subject themselves to
the inconvenience and hazards of self-service;
(b) [Discriminate] Discriminates against customers who are
elderly or handicapped who are unable to serve themselves and so must pay the
significantly higher prices; and
(c) Increases self-service dispensing and thereby decreases
maintenance checks by attendants, which results in neglect of maintenance, [which endangers] endangering both the customer and other motorists and [results] resulting in unnecessary and costly repairs;
(11) The increased use of self-service at retail in other
states has contributed to diminishing the availability of automotive repair
facilities at gasoline stations;
(12) Self-service dispensing at retail in other states does not
provide a sustained reduction in fuel prices charged to customers;
(13) A general prohibition of self-service dispensing of Class
1 flammable liquids by the general public promotes public welfare by providing
increased safety and convenience without causing economic harm to the public in
general;
(14) Self-service dispensing at retail contributes to
unemployment, particularly among young people;
(15) Self-service dispensing at retail presents a health hazard
and unreasonable discomfort to the handicapped, to elderly persons, small
children and those susceptible to respiratory diseases;
(16) The federal Americans with Disabilities Act, Public Law
101-336, requires that equal access be provided to disabled persons at retail
gasoline stations; and
(17) Small children left unattended when customers leave to
make payment at retail self-service stations creates a dangerous situation.
NOTE: Corrects
grammar and syntax in (10).
SECTION 161.
ORS 497.132 is amended to read:
497.132. (1) In lieu of issuing to resident persons separate
licenses for angling and hunting, the State Fish and Wildlife Commission is
authorized to issue resident annual combination angling and hunting licenses,
and charge therefor a fee of $24.25.
(2)(a) In lieu of issuing to resident persons separate licenses
and tags for various hunting and angling activities, the commission is
authorized to issue resident annual [sportsman's] sportsperson's licenses and shall
charge therefor a fee of $100. The purchaser of each such license is authorized
to engage in those hunting and angling activities for which the following
licenses and tags are required:
(A) Combination license;
(B) Black bear tag;
(C) Cougar tag;
(D) General season elk tag;
(E) General season deer tag;
(F) Upland bird stamp;
(G) Oregon migratory waterfowl stamp;
(H) Turkey tag;
(I) Salmon-steelhead tag; and
(J) Sturgeon tag.
(b) The holder of each [sportsman's]
sportsperson's license who wishes to
engage in hunting or angling activities for which permits are required that are
limited by quota must participate in the process for allocation of the permits
in the same manner as all other permit applicants. However, if the holder of a
[sportsman's] sportsperson's license is unsuccessful in obtaining a permit
limited by quota for a particular activity, the holder will be issued a tag
valid for any general season for that species.
(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of the wildlife laws,
of the moneys received from the sale of [sportsman's] sportsperson's licenses:
(A) Two dollars from each such license shall be credited to the
subaccount referred to in ORS 496.242.
(B) Five dollars from each such license shall be credited to
the subaccount referred to in section 10, chapter 512, Oregon Laws 1989.
(C) Twenty-five cents from each such license shall be credited
to the subaccount referred to in ORS 496.300 (5).
NOTE: Deletes
gender-specific language in (2)(a), (b) and (c).
SECTION 162.
ORS 497.162 is amended to read:
497.162. (1) Upon application of the Oregon Youth Authority, the State Office for Services to
Children and Families or the Mental
Health and Developmental Disability Services Division, the State Fish and
Wildlife Commission shall issue,
without fee, [licenses] a license to angle for the temporary
use of any person in a state institution as defined in ORS 179.610, [or] any student in a youth correction
facility or related camps or programs operated by the Oregon Youth Authority, [or] any child placed by the State Office for Services to
Children and Families and under the care of a foster home or a private
nonprofit child-caring agency certified by the office, or any person in a Mental Health and Developmental Disability
Services Division alternatives to state hospitalization program as defined in
ORS 430.630 (2)(b) or (c). The licenses issued under this subsection shall be
in bearer form and, subject to applicable laws and regulations relating to
angling, shall be used as the authority, office or division directs.
(2) Upon application of the director of any veteran's
administration hospital or domiciliary within this state, the commission shall
issue, without fee, to each hospital or domiciliary[,] 30 licenses to angle for the
temporary use of any person who is a patient or resident in the hospital or
domiciliary. The licenses issued under this subsection shall be in bearer form
and, subject to applicable laws and regulations relating to angling, shall be
used as the director of the hospital or domiciliary provides.
NOTE: Corrects
punctuation and syntax.
SECTION 163.
ORS 508.285 is amended to read:
508.285. (1) The fee for each license required by this chapter
is as follows:
(a) Albacore tuna
landing license, $20.
(b) Resident boat
license, $200.
(c) Nonresident boat
license, $400.
(d) Resident
commercial fishing license, $50.
(e) Nonresident
commercial fishing license, $100.
(f) Commercial
fishing license for resident persons 18 years of age or younger, $25.
(g) Commercial bait
fishing license, $60.
(h) Fish buyer
license, $150.
(i) Fish bait dealer
license, $60.
(j) Food fish canner
license, $350.
(k) Shellfish canner
license, $350.
(L) Single delivery
license, $100.
(m) Wholesale fish
dealer license, $350.
(2) As used in this section,
"resident" means an actual bona fide resident of this state for at
least one year prior to application for a license.
NOTE: Conforms
statute structure to legislative form and style; corrects punctuation.
SECTION 164.
ORS 520.015 is amended to read:
520.015. "Waste,"
in addition to its ordinary meaning, means "physical waste" as that
term is generally understood in the petroleum industry. It includes:
(1) Underground waste and the inefficient, excessive or
improper use or dissipation of reservoir energy, including gas energy and water
drive, of any pool[;], and the locating, spacing, drilling,
equipping, operating or producing of any oil well or gas well in a manner [which] that results or tends to result in reducing the quantity of oil or
gas ultimately recoverable from any pool;
and
(2) Surface waste and the inefficient storing of oil and the
locating, spacing, drilling, equipping, operating or producing of oil wells or
gas wells in a manner causing or tending to cause unnecessary or excessive
surface loss or destruction of oil or gas.
NOTE: Corrects
punctuation; inserts appropriate conjunction after (1).
SECTION 165.
ORS 526.992 is amended to read:
526.992. (1) A person who, with willful disregard for the
prohibitions contained in ORS 526.801 to 526.831 [and 526.992] against exporting public timber, exported or caused to
be exported unprocessed timber originating from public lands in violation of
this chapter is guilty of a Class C felony and may be assessed a civil penalty
not to exceed $500,000 for each violation or three times the gross value of the
unprocessed timber involved in the violation, whichever amount is greater.
(2) If the agency concerned finds, on the record and after an
opportunity for a hearing, that a person has violated any provision of ORS
526.801 to 526.831 [and 526.992] or
any rule issued pursuant thereto relating to lands which the agency administers
(notwithstanding that such violation may not have caused the export of
unprocessed public timber in violation of this chapter), such agency may:
(a) Assess against such person a civil penalty not more than
$75,000 for each violation if it is determined that the violation was casual or
involuntary.
(b) Assess against such person a civil penalty not more than
$500,000 or three times the gross value of the unprocessed timber involved in
the violation, whichever amount is greater, if it is determined that the person
committed such violation willfully. Any person who willfully commits such a
violation is guilty of a Class C felony.
[(c)] (3) Any civil penalty imposed under
this section shall become due and payable when the person incurring the penalty
receives a notice in writing of the imposition of the penalty. The notice may
be personally served on the person incurring the penalty or may be sent by
registered or certified mail.
[(d)] (4) The person incurring the penalty shall
have 20 days from the date of receiving the notice to make written application
for a hearing.
[(e)] (5) Any person who makes application as
provided for in [paragraph (d) of this
subsection] subsection (4) of this
section shall be entitled to a hearing. The hearing shall be conducted as a
contested case hearing pursuant to the applicable provisions of ORS 183.413 to
183.470.
[(f)] (6) Judicial review of an order made
after a hearing under [paragraph (e) of
this subsection] this section
shall be as provided in ORS 183.480 to 183.497 for judicial review of contested
cases.
[(g)] (7) When an order assessing a civil
penalty under this section becomes final by operation of law or on appeal, and
the amount of penalty is not paid within 10 days after the order becomes final,
the order may be recorded with the county clerk in any county of this state.
The clerk shall thereupon record the name of the person incurring the penalty
and the amount of the penalty in the County Clerk Lien Record.
[(h)] (8) All moneys recovered pursuant to
this section shall be paid into the State Forestry Department Account and may
be used only to pay the expenses of administration, investigation and
enforcement of ORS 526.801 to 526.831 [and
526.992] by the State Forester or any law enforcement agency.
NOTE: Restructures
statute for clarity; deletes erroneous ORS references.
SECTION 166.
ORS 527.620 is amended to read:
527.620. As used in ORS 527.610 to 527.770, 527.990 and
527.992:
(1) "Board" means the State Board of Forestry.
[(2) "Harvest type
1" means an operation that requires reforestation but does not require
wildlife leave trees. A harvest type 1 is an operation that leaves a combined
stocking level of free to grow seedlings, saplings, poles and larger trees that
is less than the stocking level established by rule of the board which
represents adequate utilization of the productivity of the site.]
[(3) "Harvest type
2" means an operation that requires wildlife leave trees but does not
require reforestation. A harvest type 2 does not require reforestation because
it has an adequate combined stocking of free to grow seedlings, saplings, poles
and larger trees, but which leaves:]
[(a) On Cubic Foot Site
Class I, II or III, fewer than 50 11-inch DBH trees or less than an equivalent
basal area in larger trees, per acre;]
[(b) On Cubic Foot Site
Class IV or V, fewer than 30 11-inch DBH trees or less than an equivalent basal
area in larger trees, per acre; or]
[(c) On Cubic Foot Site
Class VI, fewer than 15 11-inch DBH trees or less than an equivalent basal area
in larger trees, per acre.]
[(4) "Harvest type
3" means an operation that requires reforestation and requires wildlife
leave trees. This represents a level of stocking below which the size of
operations is limited per ORS 527.740 and 527.750.]
[(5)] (2) "Cumulative effects"
means the impact on the environment which results from the incremental impact
of the forest practice when added to other past, present and reasonably
foreseeable future forest practices regardless of what governmental agency or
person undertakes such other actions.
[(6)] (3) "DBH" means the diameter
at breast height which is measured as the width of a standing tree at four and
one-half feet above the ground, on the uphill side.
[(7)] (4) "Edge of the roadway"
means:
(a) For interstate highways, the fence.
(b) For all other state highways, the outermost edge of
pavement, or if unpaved, the edge of the shoulder.
[(8)
"Forestland" means land which is used for the growing and harvesting
of forest tree species, regardless of how the land is zoned or taxed or how any
state or local statutes, ordinances, rules or regulations are applied.]
[(9)] (5) "Forest practice" means
any operation conducted on or pertaining to forestland, including but not
limited to:
(a) Reforestation of forestland;
(b) Road construction and maintenance;
(c) Harvesting of forest tree species;
(d) Application of chemicals; and
(e) Disposal of slash.
[(10)] (6) "Forest tree species"
does not include:
(a) Christmas trees on land used solely for the production of
cultured Christmas trees as defined in ORS 215.203 (3).
(b) Hardwood timber, including but not limited to hybrid
cottonwood, which is:
(A) Grown or growing on land which has been prepared by
intensive cultivation methods and which is cleared of competing vegetation for
at least three years after tree planting;
(B) Of a species marketable as fiber for inclusion in the
"furnish" for manufacturing paper products;
(C) Harvested on a rotation cycle within 12 years after planting;
and
(D) Subject to intensive agricultural practices such as
fertilization, insect and disease control, cultivation and irrigation.
(7)
"Forestland" means land that is used for the growing and harvesting
of forest tree species, regardless of how the land is zoned or taxed or how any
state or local statutes, ordinances, rules or regulations are applied.
(8) "Harvest type
1" means an operation that requires reforestation but does not require
wildlife leave trees. A harvest type 1 is an operation that leaves a combined
stocking level of free to grow seedlings, saplings, poles and larger trees that
is less than the stocking level established by rule of the board that
represents adequate utilization of the productivity of the site.
(9) "Harvest type
2" means an operation that requires wildlife leave trees but does not
require reforestation. A harvest type 2 does not require reforestation because
it has an adequate combined stocking of free to grow seedlings, saplings, poles
and larger trees, but leaves:
(a) On Cubic Foot Site Class
I, II or III, fewer than 50 11-inch DBH trees or less than an equivalent basal
area in larger trees, per acre;
(b) On Cubic Foot Site Class
IV or V, fewer than 30 11-inch DBH trees or less than an equivalent basal area
in larger trees, per acre; or
(c) On Cubic Foot Site Class
VI, fewer than 15 11-inch DBH trees or less than an equivalent basal area in
larger trees, per acre.
(10) "Harvest type
3" means an operation that requires reforestation and requires wildlife
leave trees. This represents a level of stocking below which the size of
operations is limited under ORS 527.740 and 527.750.
(11) "Landowner" means any individual, combination of
individuals, partnership, corporation or association of whatever nature that
holds an ownership interest in forestland, including the state and any
political subdivision thereof.
(12) "Operation" means any commercial activity
relating to the growing or harvesting of forest tree species.
(13) "Operator" means any person, including a landowner
or timber owner, who conducts an operation.
(14) "Single ownership" means ownership by an
individual, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, trust, holding
company or other business entity, including the state or any political
subdivision thereof. Single ownership includes ownership held under different
names or titles where the same individual or individuals, or their heirs or
assigns, are shareholders (other than those of public corporations whose stock
is traded on the open market), partners, business trustees or officers, or
otherwise have an interest in or are associated with each property.
(15) "State Forester" means the State Forester or the
duly authorized representative of the State Forester.
(16) "Suitable hardwood seedlings" means any hardwood
seedling that will eventually yield logs or fiber, or both, sufficient in size
and quality for the production of lumber, plywood, pulp or other forest
products.
(17) "Timber owner" means any individual, combination
of individuals, partnership, corporation or association of whatever nature,
other than a landowner, that holds an ownership interest in any forest tree
species on forestland.
(18) "Visually sensitive corridor" means forestland
extending outward 150 feet, measured on the slope, from the outermost edge of
the roadway of a scenic highway referred to in ORS 527.755, along both sides
for the full length of the highway.
(19) "Wildlife leave trees" means trees or snags
required to be retained as described in ORS 527.676 (1).
(20) "Written plan" means a plan submitted by an
operator, for written approval by the State Forester, which describes how the
operation will be conducted, including the means to protect resource sites
described in ORS 527.710 (3)(a) and information required by ORS 527.745 and
527.750, if applicable.
NOTE: Restructures
statute for conformance to legislative form and style; corrects grammar.
SECTION 167. ORS 527.676 is added to and made a part of
ORS 527.610 to 527.770.
NOTE: Adds statute
to appropriate series.
SECTION 168.
ORS 530.280 is amended to read:
530.280. (1) There hereby is created a sinking fund account to
provide for the payment of the principal and interest of all bonds issued
pursuant to the provisions of ORS 530.210 to 530.280. The fund shall consist of
the following:
(a) All moneys derived from taxes levied under ORS 291.445; [and]
(b) All moneys derived from the sale, exchange or use of land
acquired pursuant to ORS 530.240; and
(c) Except as provided in ORS 530.115, all moneys received from
the disposal of forest products created through expenditures of moneys
available under the Oregon Forest Rehabilitation Act for reforestation.
(2) The moneys
referred to in [paragraphs (a) to (c) of
this subsection] subsection (1) of
this section shall be set aside for sinking fund purposes until the issues
of bonds which provided funds for such reforestation have been retired. The
State Forester shall designate and keep records of the area of land on which
the funds from particular issues of bonds have been expended for such
reforestation.
[(2)] (3) Disbursement from the sinking fund
shall be made, for the purposes stated, upon the submission of duly verified
claims, approved by the board, to the Secretary of State, who shall audit the
same in the manner that other claims against the state are audited. The Oregon
Department of Administrative Services thereupon shall draw a warrant on the
State Treasurer against the fund. The money in the sinking fund may be invested
as provided in ORS 293.701 to 293.820.
NOTE: Restructures
statute for conformance to legislative form and style.
SECTION 169.
ORS 536.420 is amended to read:
536.420. (1) The Governor shall designate the Water Resources
Director[,] or a member or members of
the Water Resources Commission [as a
party] to act on behalf of and to represent the state in [the formulation] formulating, entering into and carrying out [of] any formal or informal compact or other agreement authorized by
the Legislative Assembly concerning the use and control of the water resources
of this state, between this state or any state agency or public corporation
thereof and any other state, any state agency or public corporation thereof or
the Federal Government or any agency thereof.
(2) [Such] The representative or representatives
designated by the Governor under subsection (1) of this section shall make
every effort practicable to [insure] ensure that the compact or other
agreement, as formulated, entered into and carried out, is in harmony with the
state water resources policy and otherwise with the public interest in
encouraging, promoting and securing the maximum beneficial use and control of
the water resources of this state.
(3) The commission in carrying out an investigation pertaining
to water resources may cooperate with state agencies of California for the
purpose of formulating, executing and submitting to the legislatures of Oregon
and California for their approval, interstate compacts relative to the
distribution and use of the waters of Goose Lake and tributaries thereto. No
compacts or agreements formulated as provided in this section are binding upon
this state until they have been approved by the legislature of this state and
the Congress of the United States.
(4) Any state agency or public corporation of this state
required or permitted by law to formulate, enter into or carry out any compact
or other agreement referred to in subsection (1) of this section shall give
timely and adequate notice to the commission before it undertakes any action
under such requirement or permission.
NOTE: Corrects
syntax in (1) and (2).
SECTION 170.
ORS 537.346 is amended to read:
537.346. (1) All minimum perennial streamflows established on
any waters of this state before June 25, 1988, shall be converted to in-stream
water rights after the Water Resources Commission reviews the streamflows and the Water Resources Department issues
a certificate for an in-stream water right in accordance with ORS 537.343 with
the same priority date as the minimum perennial streamflow.
(2) If a minimum perennial streamflow established on any waters
of the Willamette Basin before September 27, 1987, requires stored water to
achieve the minimum perennial streamflow, the commission shall conduct a
hearing under ORS 537.343 to review the minimum perennial streamflow and
determine whether the conversion to an in-stream water right is consistent with
the findings under ORS 537.334.
(3) The priority date for that portion of an in-stream water
right that uses the stored water component of a minimum perennial streamflow in
the Willamette Basin shall be the date the commission or its predecessor
adopted the minimum perennial streamflow containing the stored water component.
(4) Notwithstanding the priority date established under
subsection (3) of this section, until the state enters into a contract that
meets the criteria set forth in subsection (5) of this section with the owner
of the storage facility to release the stored water for the purpose of
satisfying the in-stream water right, for that portion of an in-stream water
right in the Willamette Basin converted from the stored water component of a
minimum perennial streamflow, the [Water
Resources] department:
(a) May not require the release of the stored water; and
(b) Shall not regulate the use of water to provide water for
the portion of the in-stream water right using stored water.
(5) A contract for the release of stored water to satisfy an
in-stream water right shall:
(a) Include as parties to the contract the State of Oregon and
the owner of the storage facility;
(b) Specifically allow the state to obtain the release of
stored water to satisfy an in-stream water right; and
(c) Identify a method to determine the specific quantity of
water released from storage to satisfy the stored water component of the
in-stream water right.
(6) If the Federal Government does not release water to satisfy
a stored water component of an in-stream water right pursuant to a contract
that satisfies the criteria set forth in subsection (5) of this section, the [Water Resources] department may not
regulate the use of water by other water right holders to satisfy the stored
water component of an in-stream water right or take any other action that
impairs the rights of any person under a valid contract for the use of the
stored water.
NOTE: Sets forth
official title in (1).
SECTION 171.
ORS 537.575 is amended to read:
537.575. Any permit granted or application for a permit
approved under ORS 537.510, 537.520, 537.530, 537.540, 537.550, 537.560,
537.570, 537.580, 537.590 and 537.600 prior to and still valid and in effect on
August 3, 1955, is considered to be a permit issued under ORS 537.625. Any
application for a permit under ORS 537.510, 537.520, 537.530, 537.540, 537.550,
537.560, 537.570, 537.580, 537.590 and 537.600 prior to, pending and not yet
approved on August 3, 1955, shall be governed as an application for a permit
under ORS 537.615, [to] 537.620,
537.621, 537.622 and 537.625.
NOTE: Inserts
appropriate ORS string citation.
SECTION 172. ORS 537.627 is added to and made a part of
ORS 537.505 to 537.795.
NOTE: Adds statute
to appropriate series.
SECTION 173. ORS 541.345, 541.347 and 541.392 are added
to and made a part of ORS 541.350 to 541.403.
NOTE: Adds statutes
to appropriate series.
SECTION 174.
ORS 541.370 is amended to read:
541.370. (1) In carrying out the watershed enhancement program,
the Governor's Watershed Enhancement Board shall:
(a) Coordinate the board's funding of enhancement projects with
the activities of the Natural Resources Division staff and other agencies,
especially those agencies working together through a system of coordinated
resource management planning.
(b) Use the expertise of the appropriate state agency according
to the type of enhancement project.
(c) Provide educational and informational materials to promote
public awareness and involvement in the watershed [and] enhancement program.
(d) Coordinate and provide for or arrange for assistance in the
activities of persons, agencies or political subdivisions developing local
watershed enhancement projects funded by the board.
(e) Grant funds for the support of watershed councils in
assessing watershed conditions, developing action plans, implementing projects
and monitoring results and for the implementation of watershed enhancement
projects from such moneys as may be available to the board therefor.
(f) Develop and maintain a centralized repository for
information about the effects of watershed enhancement and education projects.
(g) Give priority to proposed watershed enhancement projects
receiving funding or assistance from other sources.
(h) Identify gaps in research or available information about
watershed health and enhancement.
(i) Cooperate with appropriate federal entities to identify the
needs and interests of the State of Oregon so that federal plans and project
schedules relating to watershed enhancement incorporate the state's intent to
the fullest extent practicable.
(j) Encourage the use of nonstructural methods to enhance the
riparian areas and associated uplands of Oregon's watersheds.
(2) In accordance with ORS 541.397 to 541.401, the Governor's
Watershed Enhancement Board shall administer a watershed improvement grant
program using funds from the Watershed Improvement Grant Fund established under
ORS 541.397.
(3) To aid and advise the board in the performance of the
functions of the board, the board may establish such advisory and technical
committees as the board considers necessary. These committees may be continuing
or temporary. The board shall determine the representation, membership, terms
and organization of the committees and shall appoint their members. The
chairperson is ex officio a member of each committee.
NOTE: Deletes
extraneous conjunction in (1)(c).
SECTION 175.
ORS 541.392 is amended to read:
541.392. [(1)] The
Governor's Watershed Enhancement Board shall report annually to the appropriate
legislative committee on the implementation of the management program under ORS
541.384. The report shall include but need not be limited to:
[(a)] (1) An explanation of the
effectiveness and workability of the partnership process described in ORS
541.384;
[(b)] (2) A description of any modifications
to the process that have been instituted; and
[(c)] (3) Recommendations concerning the
need for future legislative action.
[(2) On or before January
1, 1997, the Governor's Watershed Enhancement Board shall submit a report on
the projects undertaken under ORS 541.384 to the Sixty-ninth Legislative
Assembly.]
NOTE: Deletes
obsolete provision.
SECTION 176.
ORS 561.150 is amended to read:
561.150. [(1) Except for:]
[(a) Funds to be expended
for the extermination of predatory animals under the provisions of ORS chapter
610;]
[(b) Moneys received by
the State Department of Agriculture from the sale of skins of predatory animals
as provided in ORS 610.040;]
[(c) Moneys received by
the department that are subject to ORS 561.144;]
(1) All unexpended
funds [which] that are available to the
State Department of Agriculture
for its use in carrying out its duties as prescribed by law and for any other
purpose shall be a part of the General Fund of the state and shall be credited
to a fund to be known as the Department of Agriculture Account except for:
(a) Funds to be expended for
the extermination of predatory animals under the provisions of ORS chapter 610;
(b) Moneys received by the
department from the sale of skins of predatory animals as provided in ORS
610.040; and
(c) Moneys received by the
department that are subject to ORS 561.144.
(2) All appropriations, fines, fees, penalties and other moneys
received by the department or credited to its use from the State Treasury,
except the funds named in paragraphs (a) and (b) of subsection (1) and money
required by law to be placed therein, shall be placed in the General Fund and
credited to the Department of Agriculture Account.
(3) All fines, fees, penalties and other moneys received by the
department shall be turned over to the State Treasurer not later than the 10th
day of the calendar month next succeeding their receipt by the department.
(4) All moneys without respect to their sources, credited to
either the Department of Agriculture Account or the Department of Agriculture
Service Fund shall be available for the payment of any and all the expenses of
the department, excepting those incurred in connection with the extermination
of predatory animals.
(5) The Director of Agriculture shall keep a record of all
moneys deposited in the Department of Agriculture Account and the Department of
Agriculture Service Fund. Such record shall indicate the source from which the
moneys are derived and name the individual departmental activity against which
each withdrawal is charged.
NOTE: Restructures
(1) for conformance to legislative form and style.
SECTION 177.
ORS 564.110 is amended to read:
564.110. (1) The lists of threatened species or endangered
species established pursuant to ORS 564.105 (2) initially shall include those
species listed as of May 15, 1987, as a threatened species or an endangered
species pursuant to the federal Endangered Species Act of 1973 (P.L. 93-205, 16
U.S.C. 1531 et seq.), as amended.
(2) The Director of Agriculture, by rule, may add or remove any
plant species from either list, or change the status of any species on the
lists, upon a determination that the species is or is not a threatened species
or an endangered species.
(3) A determination that a species is a threatened species or
an endangered species shall be based on documented and verifiable scientific
information about the species' biological status. To list a species as a
threatened species or an endangered species under ORS 564.100 to 564.130, the
director shall determine that the natural reproductive potential of the species
is in danger of failure due to limited population numbers, disease, predation
or other natural or man-made factors affecting its continued existence. In
addition, the director shall determine that one or more of the following
factors exists:
(a) That most populations are undergoing imminent or active
deterioration of their range or primary habitat;
(b) That overutilization for commercial, recreational,
scientific or educational purposes is occurring or is likely to occur; or
(c) That existing state or federal programs or regulations are
inadequate to protect the species or its habitat.
(4) Determinations required by subsection (3) of this section
shall be made on the basis of the best scientific and other data available to
the State Department of Agriculture, after consultation with federal agencies,
other interested state agencies, the Natural Heritage Advisory Council, other
states having a common interest in the species and interested persons and
organizations.
(5) Any person may petition the department to, by rule, add,
remove or change the status of a species on the list:
(a) A petition shall clearly indicate the action sought and
shall include documented scientific information about the species' biological
status to justify the requested action.
(b) Within 90 days of receipt of a petition, the department
shall respond in writing to the petitioner indicating whether the petition
presents substantial scientific information to warrant the action requested.
(c) If the petition is found to present such information, the
department shall commence rulemaking.
(d) If the petition is denied, the petitioner may seek judicial
review as provided in ORS 183.484.
(6) Notwithstanding subsections (1) to (5) of this section, the
department shall take emergency action to add a species to the list of
threatened species or endangered species if it determines there is a
significant threat to the continued existence of the species:
(a) The department shall publish notice of such addition in the
Secretary of State's bulletin and shall mail notice to affected or interested
persons whose names are included on the department's mailing list for such
purposes.
(b) Such emergency addition shall take effect immediately upon
publication in the Secretary of State's bulletin and shall remain valid for a
period no longer than one year, unless during the one-year period the
department completes rulemaking procedures as provided in subsections (1) to
(4) of this section.
(7) The director shall periodically review the status of all
threatened and endangered plant species listed under ORS 496.004, 496.171 to
496.192, 498.026, 564.040 and 564.100 to 564.135:
(a) Each species shall be reviewed at least once every five
years to determine whether substantial, documented scientific information
exists to justify its reclassification or removal from the list, according to
the criteria listed under subsection (3) of this section.
(b) If a determination is made to reclassify a species or
remove it from the list, the department, within 90 days, shall commence
rulemaking to change the status of the species.
[(8) By July 1, 1988, the
department shall conduct an initial review of existing scientific information
for the purpose of determining those species for which current information is
adequate to begin rulemaking as provided in this section.]
NOTE: Deletes
obsolete provisions.
SECTION 178.
ORS 565.210 is amended to read:
565.210. (1) Any county may hold county and industrial fairs[;],
but only one county fair shall be held in each county.
(2) In counties holding county fairs, the county court of such
county shall appoint a board consisting of not less than three nor more than
seven residents of the county, to be known as the county fair board. When the
first members of the board are appointed under this section, one member shall
be appointed for a term to expire the January next following appointment, one
for a term to expire one year from the January next following appointment, and
one for a term to expire two years from the January next following appointment.
In addition to the three members, the county court may, at any time, appoint
not more than four additional members, the fourth and sixth members to be
appointed for a term to expire one year from the January next following
appointment and the fifth and seventh members, if any, for a term to expire two
years from the January next following appointment. Annually thereafter, at the
first meeting in January, upon the expiration of the term of a member, a
successor shall be appointed to serve for three years.
(3) The court shall require each member of the board to furnish
a good and sufficient bond or an irrevocable letter of credit issued by an
insured institution as defined in ORS 706.008 in favor of the county,
conditioned upon the faithful performance of the duties of the office. The bond
or letter of credit for each member shall be in a sum equal to $10,000 or 20
percent of the total revenues received by the fair in the last fiscal year
ending prior to the appointment of such member, whichever is the lesser amount.
The bond or letter of credit when approved by the county court shall be filed
with the county clerk. The premium on the bond or the fee for the letter of
credit shall be paid for by the county fair board as an expense of the board.
(4) No more than one member of the county court may serve as a
member of the county fair board.
NOTE: Corrects
punctuation in (1).
SECTION 179.
ORS 568.930 is amended to read:
568.930. (1) All agricultural activities conducted on
agricultural lands within the boundaries of an area subject to a water quality
management plan shall be conducted in full compliance with the plan and rules
implementing the plan and with all the rules and standards of the Environmental
Quality Commission relating to water pollution control. In addition to any
other remedy provided by law, any violation of those rules or standards shall
be subject to all remedies and sanctions available to the Department of
Environmental Quality or the Environmental Quality Commission.
(2) Any civil penalty imposed under ORS 568.933 shall be
reduced by the amount of any civil penalty imposed by the Environmental Quality
Commission or the Department of Environmental Quality for violations of water
quality rules or standards, if the latter penalties are imposed on the same
person and are based on the same violation.
(3) The State Department of Agriculture and the State Board of
Agriculture shall consult with the Department of Environmental Quality or the
Environmental Quality Commission in the adoption and review of water quality
management plans.
(4)(a) The Environmental Quality Commission may petition the State Department of Agriculture for a review of part or all of any water quality
management plan and rules implementing the plan. The petition must allege with
reasonable specificity that the plan or its content is not adequate to achieve
compliance with applicable state and federal water quality standards.
(b) The State
Department of Agriculture, in
consultation with the State Board of Agriculture, shall complete its review of
a petition submitted under paragraph (a) of this subsection within 90 days of
the date of the filing of the petition for review. The State Department of
Agriculture shall not terminate the review without the concurrence of the
Environmental Quality Commission unless the department initiates revisions to
the water quality management plan that address the issues raised by the
Environmental Quality Commission. Any revisions adopted in response to a
petition by the Environmental Quality Commission shall be adopted not later
than two years from the date the Environmental Quality Commission submits the
petition, unless the State
Department of Agriculture, with the
concurrence of the Environmental Quality Commission, finds special
circumstances require additional time.
(5) A water quality management plan and rules implementing the
plan that pertain to a ground water management area shall be subject to the
coordination requirements of ORS 468B.162.
NOTE: Sets forth
official titles in (4)(a) and (b).
SECTION 180.
ORS 571.530 is amended to read:
571.530. (1) Each person required to be licensed by ORS 571.525
shall make application for such license or for renewal thereof on a form
furnished by the State Department of Agriculture which shall contain:
(a) The name and address of the applicant, the number of
locations to be operated by the applicant and the addresses thereof, and the
assumed business name of the applicant;
(b) If other than an individual, a statement whether such
person is a partnership, corporation or other organization;
(c) The total number of acres of Christmas trees grown by the
applicant; and
(d) The type of business to be operated and, if the applicant
is an agent, the principals the applicant represents.
(2) Each application for license shall be accompanied by a
license fee as provided for by this section. Such application shall not be a
public record but shall be subject to audit and review by the department.
(3)(a) The license fees for growers shall be established on the
basis of the total number of acres of Christmas trees being grown in this state
by the applicant. For the purpose of calculating the license fee, four acres of
Christmas trees growing in a natural timber stand shall be considered the
equivalent of one acre of planted Christmas trees.
[(b)(A) During the period
beginning July 1, 1990, and ending June 30, 1991, the annual license fee shall
be a basic charge plus an acreage assessment. The total fee shall not be less
than $62.50 nor more than $5,000. Fees shall be established as follows: ]
[_________________________________________________________________]
[Basic charge for acreage assessment is $60 per applicant plus:]
[ $2.50 per acre for 40
or fewer acres; plus an additional]
[ $2.00 per acre for more
than 40 acres but not more than 100 acres; plus an additional]
[$1.50 per acre for more
than 100 acres but not more than 200 acres; plus an additional]
[$1 per acre for more
than 200 acres.]
[_________________________________________________________________]
[(B)] (b) [For license years beginning July 1, 1991,] The annual license fee
schedule shall be established by the department after consultation with the
State Christmas Tree Advisory Committee and after a public hearing in
accordance with ORS 183.310 to 183.550[,]. The annual license fee shall not [to] exceed $75 [for the] as a basic
charge and $3 per acre [for the] as an acreage assessment. The total
license fee established pursuant to this [subparagraph]
paragraph shall not exceed $5,000.
NOTE: Deletes
obsolete provisions in (3)(b).
SECTION 181. ORS 599.411 is repealed.
NOTE: Repeals
obsolete statute.
SECTION 182.
ORS 610.030 is amended to read:
610.030. (1) The State Department of Agriculture shall
apportion any money appropriated by the [state
legislature] Legislative Assembly
for the purpose set forth in ORS 610.025, among the counties according to the
necessity for control and eradication of predatory animals and the financial
cooperation received from the counties.
(2) Moneys paid or forwarded pursuant to ORS 610.025 by the
county court of any county to the State Department of Agriculture, and moneys
allotted by the State Department of Agriculture for expenditure within any
county, hereby are appropriated continuously for and shall be expended only in
the control of coyotes and other harmful predatory animals within the
boundaries of the county in accordance with the terms and conditions fixed by
the State Department of Agriculture and the United States Department of
Agriculture, unless otherwise authorized by the county court.
NOTE: Sets forth
official title.
SECTION 183.
ORS 618.071 is amended to read:
618.071. When necessary for the enforcement of ORS 618.010 to
618.246 and 618.991, or rules promulgated pursuant thereto, the State
Department of Agriculture is:
(1) Authorized to enter during normal business hours any
premises, including buildings or mobile facilities, where commercial
transactions are conducted, commodities are located, or weights and measures
are employed.
[(a)] If such
premises are not open to the public, a department representative shall first
present the credentials of the representative and obtain consent before making
entry thereto.
[(b)] If such entry
is denied, the department may apply for a search warrant from any person
authorized to issue search warrants.
(2) Empowered to stop any commercial vehicle and, after
presentment of credentials, require the person in charge to move the vehicle to
a designated place for inspection on probable cause that a violation of ORS
618.010 to 618.246 and 618.991 has occurred or is occurring.
(3) Authorized, in the public interest, to issue written
notices or warnings to violators for minor infractions of ORS 618.010 to
618.246 and 618.991 in lieu of referring the matter to the district attorney.
NOTE: Corrects
structure of (1).
SECTION 184.
ORS 624.080 is amended to read:
624.080. (1) The Health Division may, by rule, define certain
communicable diseases which may be spread to the public by employees of a
restaurant, bed and breakfast facility or temporary restaurant.
(2) No person who is affected with a communicable disease
described in subsection (1) of this section or is a carrier of such disease
shall work in any restaurant, bed and breakfast facility or temporary
restaurant. No restaurant, bed and breakfast facility or temporary restaurant
shall employ any such person or any person suspected of being affected with any
communicable disease or of being a carrier of such disease. If the restaurant,
bed and breakfast facility or temporary restaurant manager suspects that any
employee has contracted any disease in a communicable form or has become a
carrier of such disease the manager shall notify the assistant director
immediately. A placard containing this [section]
subsection shall be posted in all
toilet rooms.
(3) When suspicion arises as to the possibility of transmission
of infection from any restaurant, bed and breakfast facility or temporary
restaurant employee, the assistant director may require any or all of the
following measures:
(a) The immediate exclusion of the employee from all
restaurants, bed and breakfast facilities and temporary restaurants; and
(b) Adequate medical examinations of the employee and
associates of the employee, with such laboratory examinations as may be
indicated.
NOTE: Corrects
internal reference in (2).
SECTION 185.
ORS 634.212 is amended to read:
634.212. (1) Upon receiving a petition of any 25 or more
landowners, representing at least 70 percent of the acres of land, situated
within the territory proposed to be a protected area, the State Department of
Agriculture may establish a protected area, in accordance with the provisions
of ORS 561.510 to 561.590 governing the procedures for the declaration of
quarantines, except the consent of the Governor shall not be required.
(2) The petition, referred to in subsection (1) of this
section, shall include the following:
(a) The proposed name of the protected area.
(b) The description, including proposed boundaries, of the
territory proposed to be a protected area.
(c) A concise statement of the need for the establishment of
the protected area proposed.
(d) A concise statement of the pesticides and the times,
methods or rates of pesticide applications to be restricted or prohibited and
the extent such are to be restricted or prohibited.
(e) A request that a public hearing be held by the department.
(f) The name of the person authorized to act as attorney in
fact for the petitioners in all matters relating to the establishment of a
proposed protected area.
(g) A concise statement of any desired limitations of the
powers and duties of the governing body of the proposed protected area.
(3) If more than one petition, referred to in subsection (1) of
this section, is received by the department describing parts of the same territory,
the department may consolidate all or any of such petitions.
(4) Each petition, described in subsection (1) of this section,
shall be accompanied by a filing fee of $125. Upon receipt of such petition and
payment of such fee, the department shall prepare and submit to the petitioners
an estimated budget of the costs of establishing such proposed protected area,
including cost of preparation of the estimated budget, of the hearing and of
the preparation of required documents. Within 15 days of the receipt of the
estimated budget, the petitioners shall remit to the department the difference
between the filing fee and total estimated budget. Should the petitioners fail
to remit such difference, the department shall retain the filing fee and terminate
the procedure for establishment of a proposed protected area. If, upon
completion of the procedure for establishment of a proposed protected area,
there remains an unexpended and unencumbered balance of funds received by the
department under this section, such balance shall be refunded to the
petitioners through their designated attorney in fact.
(5) In making a determination pursuant to the authority granted
under ORS 561.520 (2), the Director [of
the department] of Agriculture
shall consider, among other factors, the following:
(a) The agricultural and horticultural crops, wildlife or
forest industry to be affected and their locations.
(b) The topography and climate, including temperature, humidity
and prevailing winds, of the territory in which the proposed protected area is
situated.
(c) The characteristics and properties of pesticides used or
applied and proposed to be restricted or prohibited.
NOTE: Sets forth
official title in (5).
SECTION 186.
ORS 634.905 is amended to read:
634.905. (1) Any civil penalty under ORS 634.900 shall be
imposed as provided in ORS 183.090.
(2) Notwithstanding ORS 183.090, the person to whom the notice
is addressed shall have 10 days from the date of service of the notice in which
to make written application for a hearing before the Director of Agriculture.
NOTE: Sets forth
official title in (2).
SECTION 187.
ORS 635.055 is amended to read:
635.055. In carrying out the intent and purpose of ORS 635.045,
the State Department of Agriculture,
in addition to taking into consideration the desires and needs of the
nonalcoholic beverage manufacturing industry and the evidence and testimony
received at a public hearing, shall [also]
take into consideration the laws and rules of this state, other states and the
Federal Government. Unless there is substantial evidence and testimony to the
contrary, the department shall, as
far as is reasonable and practical, make its rules conform to, and [they shall] not be more restrictive
than, the rules of the Federal Food and Drug Administration or other federal
enforcement agency.
NOTE: Corrects
punctuation and syntax.
SECTION 188.
ORS 646.551 is amended to read:
646.551. As used in ORS 646.551 to 646.557, unless the context
requires otherwise:
(1) "Telephonic seller" means a person who, on the
person's own behalf, or on behalf of another person, causes or attempts to
cause a telephone solicitation to be made under the following circumstances:
(a) The person initiates telephonic contact with a prospective
purchaser and represents or implies any of the following:
(A) That a prospective purchaser who buys one or more goods or
services unit will receive additional units, whether or not of the same type as
purchased, without further cost. As used in this subparagraph, "further
cost" does not include actual postage or common carrier delivery charges,
if any;
(B) That a prospective purchaser will receive a prize or gift
if the person also encourages the prospective purchaser to do either of the
following:
(i) Purchase or rent any goods or services; or
(ii) Pay any money, including, but not limited to a delivery or
handling charge;
(C) That a prospective purchaser who buys goods or services,
because of some unusual event or imminent price increase, will be able to buy
these items at prices which are below those usually charged or will be charged
for those items;
(D) That the seller is a person other than the actual seller;
(E) That the items for sale or rent are manufactured or
supplied by a person other than the actual manufacturer or supplier; or
(F) That the items for sale are gold, silver or other precious
metals, diamonds, rubies, sapphires or other precious stones or any interest in
oil, gas or mineral fields, wells or exploration sites; or
(b) The telephone solicitation is made by the person in
response to inquiries from prospective purchasers generated by advertisement,
on behalf of the person and the solicitation is conducted as described in
paragraph (a) of this subsection.
(2) "Telephonic seller" does not include any of the
following:
(a) A person selling a security as defined in ORS 59.015, or
securities which are exempt under ORS 59.025.
(b) A person licensed pursuant to ORS chapter 696 when the
transaction is governed by that chapter.
(c) A person issued a certificate of registration pursuant to
ORS 701.055 when the solicited transaction is governed by ORS chapter 701.
(d) A person licensed pursuant to ORS chapter 744 when the
solicited transaction is governed by the Insurance Code.
(e) A person soliciting the sale of a franchise when the
solicited transaction is governed by ORS 650.005 to 650.085.
(f) A person primarily soliciting the sale of a subscription to
or advertising in a newspaper of general circulation.
(g) A person primarily soliciting the sale of a magazine or
periodical, or contractual plans, including book or record clubs:
(A) Under which the seller provides the consumer with a form
which the consumer may use to instruct the seller not to ship the offered
merchandise, and which is regulated by the Federal Trade Commission trade
regulation concerning "Use of Negative Option Plans by Sellers in
Commerce"; or
(B) Using
arrangements such as continuity plans, subscription arrangements, standing
order arrangements, supplements and series arrangements under which the seller
periodically ships merchandise to a consumer who has consented in advance to
receive such merchandise on a periodic basis.
(h) A person soliciting business from prospective purchasers
who have previously purchased from the business enterprise for which the person
is calling.
(i) A person soliciting without the intent to complete and who
does not complete the sales presentation during the telephone solicitation and
who only completes the sale presentation at a later face-to-face meeting between
the solicitor and the prospective purchaser, unless at that later meeting the
solicitor collects or attempts to collect payment for delivery of items
purchased.
(j) Any supervised financial institution or parent, subsidiary,
or affiliate thereof. As used in this paragraph, "supervised financial
institution" means any financial institution or trust company, as those
terms are defined in ORS 706.008, or any personal property broker, consumer
finance lender, commercial finance lender or insurer that is subject to
regulation by an official or agency of this state or the United States.
(k) A person soliciting the sale of funeral or burial services
regulated by ORS 59.670 and 59.680 or by ORS chapter 692.
(L) A person soliciting the sale of services provided by a
cable television system operating under authority of a franchise or permit
issued by a governmental agency of this state, or subdivision thereof.
(m) A person or affiliate of a person whose business is
regulated by the Public Utility Commission, or a telecommunications utility
with access lines of 15,000 or less or a cooperative telephone association.
(n) A person soliciting the sale of a farm product, as defined
in ORS 79.1090 (3), if the solicitation does not result in a sale which costs
the purchaser in excess of $100.
(o) An issuer or a subsidiary of an issuer that has a class of
securities that is subject to section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934
and that is either registered or exempt from registration under paragraph (A),
(B), (C), (E), (F), (G) or (H) of subsection (g) of that section.
(p) A person soliciting exclusively the sale of telephone
answering services to be provided by that person or that person's employer.
(q) A person registered under the Charitable Solicitations Act.
NOTE: Corrects
syntax in (2)(g)(B).
SECTION 189.
ORS 646.605 is amended to read:
646.605. As used in ORS 646.605 to 646.652:
[(1) "Trade"
and "commerce" mean advertising, offering or distributing, whether by
sale, rental or otherwise, any real estate, goods or services, and includes any
trade or commerce directly or indirectly affecting the people of this state.]
(1) "Appropriate
court" means the circuit court of a county:
(a) Where one or more of the
defendants reside;
(b) Where one or more of the
defendants maintain a principal place of business;
(c) Where one or more of the
defendants are alleged to have committed an act prohibited by ORS 646.605 to
646.652; or
(d) With the defendant's
consent, where the prosecuting attorney maintains an office.
(2) "Documentary material" means the original or a
copy of any book, record, report, memorandum, paper, communication, tabulation,
map, chart, photograph, mechanical transcription, or other tangible document or
recording, wherever situate.
(3) "Examination" of documentary material shall
include inspection, study, or copying of any such material, and taking
testimony under oath or acknowledgment in respect of any such documentary
material or copy thereof.
(4) "Person" means natural persons, corporations,
trusts, partnerships, incorporated or unincorporated associations, and any
other legal entity except bodies or officers acting under statutory authority
of this state or the United States.
(5) "Prosecuting attorney" means the Attorney General
or the district attorney of any county in which a violation of ORS 646.605 to
646.652 is alleged to have occurred.
[(6) "Appropriate
court" means the circuit court of a county:]
[(a) Where one or more of
the defendants reside;]
[(b) Where one or more of
the defendants maintain a principal place of business;]
[(c) Where one or more of
the defendants are alleged to have committed an act prohibited by ORS 646.605
to 646.652; or]
[(d) With the defendant's
consent, where the prosecuting attorney maintains an office.]
[(7)] (6) "Real estate, goods or
services" means those which are or may be obtained primarily for personal,
family or household purposes, or which are or may be obtained for any purposes
as a result of a telephone solicitation, and includes franchises, distributorships
and other similar business opportunities, but does not include insurance. Real
estate does not cover conduct covered by ORS chapter 90.
[(8)] (7) "Telephone solicitation"
means a solicitation where a person, in the course of the person's business,
vocation or occupation, uses a telephone or an automatic dialing-announcing
device to initiate telephonic contact with a potential customer and the person
is not one of the following:
(a) A person who is a broker-dealer or salesperson licensed under
ORS 59.175, or a mortgage banker or mortgage broker licensed under ORS 59.850
when the solicitation is for a security qualified for sale pursuant to ORS
59.055;
(b) A person who is licensed or is otherwise authorized to
engage in professional real estate activity pursuant to ORS chapter 696, when
the solicitation involves professional real estate activity;
(c) A person registered or exempt from registration, as a
builder pursuant to ORS chapter 701, when the solicitation involves the
construction, alteration, repair, improvement or demolition of a structure;
(d) A person licensed or otherwise authorized to sell insurance
as an agent pursuant to ORS chapter 744, when the solicitation involves
insurance;
(e) A person soliciting the sale of a newspaper of general
circulation, a magazine or membership in a book or record club who complies
with ORS 646.611, when the solicitation involves newspapers, magazines or
membership in a book or record club;
(f) A person soliciting without the intent to complete and who
does not complete the sales presentation during the telephone solicitation and
who only completes the sales presentation at a later face-to-face meeting
between the solicitor and the prospective purchaser;
(g) A supervised financial institution or parent, subsidiary or
affiliate thereof. As used in this paragraph, "supervised financial
institution" means any financial institution or trust company, as those
terms are defined in ORS 706.008, or any personal property broker, consumer
finance lender, commercial finance lender or insurer that is subject to
regulation by an official or agency of this state or of the United States;
(h) A person who is authorized to conduct prearrangement or
preconstruction funeral or cemetery sales, pursuant to ORS chapter 692, when
the solicitation involves prearrangement or preconstruction funeral or cemetery
plans;